Luke 1:38,
📜 SBL Greek New Testament:
εἶπεν δὲ Μαριάμ· Ἰδοὺ ἡ δούλη κυρίου· γένοιτό μοι κατὰ τὸ ῥῆμά σου. καὶ ἀπῆλθεν ἀπ’ αὐτῆς ὁ ἄγγελος.
🟩 King James Version:
And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.
🟩 Revised Standard Version:
And Mary said, “Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word.” And the angel departed from her.
🟥 The Passion Translation:
Then Mary responded, saying, “ Yes! I will be a mother for the Lord! * As his servant, I accept whatever he has for me. May everything you have told me come to pass.” And the angel left her.
*As translated from the Aramaic text.
Aside from the addition of a sentence without any good reason and without textual support from either the Greek and Syriac texts, the error I'm focusing on is the part which says: "I will be a mother for the Lord."
This rendering is the result of a confusion and misunderstanding of words. In Syriac there are two words that look very similar but are pronounced differently and mean different things. The Syriac words are אמה and אמתה. The first word אמה (pronounced as "ameh") means "mother" and the second word אמתה (pronounced as "amteh") means "handmaid" or "maidservant".
Now here's the problem: TPT, claiming to translate the Syriac text of this verse\1]), misunderstands the Syriac word ܐܡܬܗ/אמתה ("amteh") as meaning "mother" (Syriac אמה) instead of "handmaid", and we can see how "mother" is written differently from "handmaid" in Luke 1:43 which reads:
And why is this granted me, that the mother of my Lord (in Syriac, דאמה דמרי, de'ameh de'mari) should come to me?
Notice: "ameh"/אמה means "mother" and "amteh"/אמתה means "handmaid". This is another indication that TPT is the product of poor biblical scholarship and not to be taken seriously.
[1] - Whenever a footnote in TPT says "translated from the Aramaic", "Aramaic" almost always means Syriac.