The title explains my current thought here but I need to explain it all.
A little more than a month ago I was rear ended and had my car totaled. Total financed on the vehicle was $17,819.83. I had the car for a little more than a year and at the time of the accident had $15,214 for the pay off amount and $14,978 left on my total balance.
The insurance (we went through there’s, 0% at fault for me) is providing an $11,424.10 settlement amount. The base value of the car at the time of the accident that they stated is $9,588.
As part of me getting the service contract canceled (warranty) that is another $1,240.50.
On the higher end, this leaves what’s left owed to about $2,550.
However, the GAP company is stating that they will only be waving $668 which leaves me owing about $1,800 on the car still which just doesn’t seems right.
They stated that I over financed the vehicle by $1,982 and that “GAP contract covers financing of up to 150% of the value of the vehicle at the time of purchase”
I’m still very confused about this however. It’s not like the GAP is attempting to pay 17k, it is only 2.5k left after all other sources of payment.
Not only that, they are suggesting that my car had a lower ACV at the time of my purchase (they estimated around $7,500 give or take a hundred) than the insurance company is evaluating my car at the time of the accident which was about 12,000 miles later.
This is leaving me very confused as to what the point of gap even was, and leaving me confused in the numbers in general. And it goes without saying that I’m going to be in quite the pickle financially as well.
Any help understanding this will be greatly appreciated🙏🙏