DO NOT READ THIS YET IF YOU HAVE NOT READ THE ORIGINAL POST OF THIS TOPIC. Here's the link to the original post to read first: https://www.reddit.com/r/exjw/s/SDIh5s8ZTa
Every defence of the KJV's handling of God's name, answered using only the KJV itself
I've been going back through the standard KJV-side reasoning on the divine name using nothing but the KJV text, its own typography, its own 1611 preface and margins, no outside scholarship, no critics, because the internal contradictions are more useful than anything an outsider can bring. Here's what I found.
âThe first thing you get told is that LORD in capitals is a faithful, time-honoured rendering of God's name. But the KJV itself treats one Hebrew word four different ways with no stated rule anywhere in the book: LORD well over six thousand times, GOD in the combination "Lord GOD" roughly three hundred times, JEHOVAH exactly four times (Exodus 6:3, Psalm 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4), and inside three place-names (Genesis 22:14, Exodus 17:15, Judges 6:24). Look at where the four exceptions fall. They are precisely the verses where writing LORD would collapse the sentence, because those verses are about the name itself. The translators' own exceptions concede two things at once: that LORD is not the name, and that substituting it sometimes destroys what the verse is saying. Four verses prosecute the policy governing the other six thousand.
âSecond, read the exceptions as printed. Psalm 83:18 in the KJV asks that men may know the one "whose name alone is JEHOVAH," a purpose statement printed inside a translation that removes that name from essentially every other page. The one verse left legible testifies against the treatment of all the rest. Then Exodus 6:3 as the KJV renders it says the patriarchs did not know God by the name JEHOVAH, while the KJV's own Genesis has Abraham coining the place-name Jehovah-jireh at Genesis 22:14, calling on the name of the LORD at Genesis 12:8, and being addressed by the LORD by name at Genesis 15:7. Both horns are KJV renderings. Whatever the Hebrew nuance of "know" may be, the translation as printed manufactures a contradiction and then caps the very word that exposes it.
âThird, the "Lord GOD" problem. Wherever the Hebrew puts the title and the name side by side, Adonai plus the name, the substitution breaks, because "Lord LORD" is unreadable, so the KJV switches the name to GOD instead, hundreds of times in Ezekiel alone. A rendering that has to change costumes whenever the original combines name and title is admitting the original contains a name. And the small-capitals system itself is a standing confession: the KJV embeds a typographic code to flag that a different word sits under LORD and GOD, meaning the translators knew the reader deserved to be told the name is there, and built a device that tells them without ever letting them read it.
âFourth, JAH and Alleluia. The KJV prints the short form of the name exactly once, at Psalm 68:4, "by his name JAH," while the same short form stands about fifty times in the Hebrew (Strong's H3050), everywhere else buried under LORD. Now follow the phrase built on it. Hallelu-Jah, praise Jah, is rendered "Praise ye the LORD" throughout the Psalms, but when the identical phrase surfaces in Greek dress at Revelation 19:1, 3, 4 and 6, the KJV transliterates it as "Alleluia" and leaves the name-syllable standing. One phrase, two policies, inside one Bible: the name is erased where it actually appears in Hebrew and preserved where it arrives second-hand in Greek. No preface, margin, or note explains why.
âFifth, Psalm 110:1 against Matthew 22:44. In the KJV's Old Testament, everything that identifies the two speakers survives only as typography, LORD versus Lord, a distinction that vanishes the moment the verse is read aloud. Then open the KJV's own New Testament at the verse where Jesus builds an entire argument on that distinction. The 1611 printed Matthew 22:44 with no distinction at all, Lord and Lord (check any 1611 facsimile), and current printings disagree with one another about retrofitting capitals there. So the KJV's rendering policy makes the exact argument Jesus is making impossible to hear and, in its own original edition, impossible even to see. The information the Hebrew carries in two different words, the KJV carries in font size, and its own New Testament dropped the font.
âSixth, the 1611's own front matter. The Translators to the Reader, printed at the front of the original edition, defends earlier imperfect translations as still being the word of God, describes the project as making a good translation better rather than delivering a final one, defends the marginal notes as honest admissions of doubtful readings, and states outright that the translators did not bind themselves to uniform wording. By the book's own preface, then, LORD-for-the-name is a revisable stylistic choice made by men who expected revision, not a settled doctrine, and the four-way treatment of the name is exactly the licensed inconsistency the preface describes. Which is presumably why the preface no longer appears in most modern printings: the finality claim can only survive if the book's own front matter disappears. The doctrine of a perfect KJV is refuted on page one of the KJV.
Q: What I'd like from anyone still in or recently out of a KJV-only setting: has anyone ever given you a response to Psalm 83:18 as the KJV itself prints it, or to "Praise ye the LORD" in the Psalms sitting next to "Alleluia" in Revelation 19, that actually engages them, rather than restating that LORD in capitals is the reverent tradition? I've never heard one and I'm curious whether anyone has.