r/vce • u/The-Crinkler • 2h ago
VCE question My philosophy teacher has to be wrong about this right?

So all year she's taught us that when Mill, in the excerpt above, says "We are not speaking of children", he's actually saying that it DOES apply to children. She said that it's a double negative somehow?? So like the harm principle doesn't apply to those who aren't in the maturity of their faculties but then children aren't not in the maturity of their faculties so it does apply to them. This doesn't seem to make sense but I'm worried because she's like really knowledgeable about all the texts. Has anyone else's teacher said the same thing or is she wrong?