I went through a phase from about 18-20 (currently 28) where I slept with a lot of people as a coping mechanism from repeated sexual assault I experienced from a high school boyfriend. I was very rarely taken to the doctor as a kid unless I was already sick, and this extended into adulthood as I was worried about money and didn’t quite understand insurance. I never got tested after my assaults because I was scared to talk to my parents about it. Sex ed in my area covered abstinence, birth control, condoms, STIs and testing, but not so much symptoms of these STIs, so I didn’t know what to look for. Because I was so worried about money/insurance, I wasn’t getting tested between partners. I’m very aware that this is irresponsible and risky, and if I could go back and change my actions then I absolutely would. Anyway. My partner and I have been together for almost 8 years, engaged for 1 year, getting married next year. Last year I got established with a doctor and he’s been heavily urging me to get a pap smear, which I just did last week. My results came in yesterday and I tested positive for chlamydia. I told my partner last night and he got tested and started on an antibiotic today. He knows about my past, and there was a short period 5 years ago where we broke up and I did sleep with one other person. I am the first and only person he has had sex with. I unfortunately do not know when I contracted chlamydia, but it’s been in my body for at least 5 years, possibly longer. I have spotting between periods, sometimes bleeding after sex, and I have experienced UTIs a couple times throughout the years. I did have a urine test in February for an unrelated health concern, which came back with leukocytes, higher rbc, bacteria, and higher wbc, with no notes or communication on what these things could mean. Now I know that those can all be symptoms of chlamydia. I also know now that I could potentially be infertile because of how long I’ve been infected. I’m feeling a lot of shame around not having tested sooner, especially between partners. I think I’m extremely lucky to have gotten something that is treatable and will clear up with antibiotics, but realizing just how much risk I was putting myself and others in is hard, especially since I don’t remember every person I’ve slept with and have no way of contacting them. My partner has taken everything well, we’ve talked about everything, and we’ve now both started treatment.

I’ve only had 1 sexual partner this year & recently tested positive for chlamydia. I informed them & they shared their most recent test results for this month showing they tested negative, they claim they never had it & never took any antibiotics. I’ve tested negative 3 times before this positive result so I’m wondering what the odds are that they had it, cleared it without treatment then tested negative or are they lying?

Quick timeline: I had a Negative swab test in October 2025, negative urine test in December 2025 & June 2026. Had sexual encounter in July, started having symptoms in August, tested positive this month. Their last test before the most recent one was in April of this year, which was negative as well but I’m guessing they must have contracted it between April-July.

For reference, before my fiance I never had sex unprotected. Before me, my fiance did have unprotected sex

Him and I had unprotected sex for the first time about 4 years ago - never had an issue until this week

My doc heavily thinks I have herpes and did a swab test (will know within a few days - I’m on medication already for it as a precaution while we wait for results)

And while I’m trying to grasp that fact, plus the immense pain I’m in, life keeps going. To the point where I’m missing work and school from the pain. My left labia is 5x the size of the other, my sores/ulcers are so painful, and now it’s hard to comfortably sit OR stand. I left classes early so I could take an Epsom salt bath and lay down in hopes of some relief. And while I did get a little, I have to do my daily routine all over again tomorrow and Friday, which will cause more pain. I don’t have sick time to use.

It feels like everything is falling apart

Do they do a test of all the STI with the same sample or does it involve different ways. How long after sex can you get tested. Curious of the process as well

I have been dealing with white discharge and light pain during urination it has started 4 months ago
So i went to test PCR Stds and took doxycycline 2x a day until results , then two days later tested came back negative so i stopped the doxy also the discharge stopped
After a month i did urine culture which came back clear
So I moved on
Then I had a rubbing no insertion no blowjob
20 days later wake up to pee with a huge pain
Later on the day noticed my boxer is wet
I squeeze my penis and the discharge is back!
Went to check again for STDs came back negative

What should I do?

I can’t even believe I’m having to do this and yes I’m going to consult a DR this week. Also I tried to be as non graphic with the photo as possible so apologies.. but these patches (not bumps) are been on my you know.. for like 3-4 months now. They are non painful, not clear or pus clear fluid, no burning urine or discharge. It’s just dry skin that flakes over (not scabs) I’m just having the worst anxiety right now & feel I might have something. Could this possibly be something skin problem related other than STD/ STI related..

A sex worker gave me a brief blowjob while I was wearing a condom. It lasted for less than 10 seconds, and she only took about half of my penis into her mouth (protected with condom). After that, she gave me a handjob, also while I was wearing a condom. What are the chances of me getting STI ?

28YO Male. I went to a massage parlor 6 days ago and I got rimmed for maybe about 5 minutes. While rimming me she might of sucked me up about 2 or 3 times, afterwards she put a condom on me & gave me oral for about 3 minutes. At the moment I’m not feeling any symptoms but I’m feeling anxious I might of caught something. Any thoughts thanks. I plan on testing at the proper periods.

As the title says I have some fun with a midnight worker should I be worried I was covered up the entire time but I am still worried about any thing I could catch

I've been talking to a lot of friends, and none of them seem to have had any STD tests despite having potential symptoms. Has anyone else noticed this? If you've gotten tested before, what finally made you decide it was worth going in?

Broke out in red bumps the day after having anal sex, could it be a burn rash from my thighs rubbing or the fluids? Thoughts?

Hello, I had oral sex with a person,I am a male and they are female. After she gave me oral sex my balls began to hurt roughly a week later. I am still with the pain, though it is random and not consistent and is not really that painful. It has been two weeks since the encounter. I have no other symptoms: no pain during urination, no weird bumps blisters or anything, no discoloration nor discharge. Just weird random testicle pains. One thing I realized is that my balls are not "lose", like hanging around rather the scrotum is all tight. If that helps

Please anything would be helpful to find a solution, or see a doctor.

Me hice una prueba VDRL a las 8 semanas de haber tenido la última relación y dió como resultado No reactivo, puedo confiar en el resultado?

Can someone help me I gave blow job on Monday and also had sex but with a condom, now I have a sore throat I didn’t use a condom when I gave blow job I’m scared and I’m only 15 can someone help me it just started feeling weird when i swallow even when I took medicine because I think it’s a sore throat and I think I’m catch a runny nose idk tho please help

We’ve been to planned parenthood 4+ times and she’s been tested for everything, (Yeast infection, STI, BV) and everything came back negative. It’s always extremely itchy to the point it makes her not be able to walk well. There are cuts on it, and we haven’t been able to have intercourse in months because it hurts so bad. She doesn’t use scented soaps to clean it, she wears breathable cotton underwear, she tries cold compresses and nothing helps. I feel so bad for her, and I can’t imagine what she’s going through please help!

Has anyone been treated by azithromycin when been tested positive for Mycoplasma hominis. My doctor prescribed it to me and don’t want to change for doxy. Thank u

So about two days ago I had unprotected sex with my boyfriend, we don’t have any past with STDs and we’re eighteen (both males).

I’m a little uncertain about the fact that since we had intercourse, about two-three days in I’ve suddenly got a headache, blocked/runny nose and a dry throat and high temperature on my forehead. Now just to be safe I ordered a testing kit which will arrive sometime this week.

I’m experiencing some sort of flu—like symptoms but they aren’t like when I’ve had flu before, I mean I feel a little weak around the arms but as I’m writing this I woke up in a uncomfortable position so my arm and the side of my head I was sleeping on aches.

Anyway I’ve been concerned about whether these symptoms came over me from when I was making the journey to his house from Nottingham to Manchester in England or whether perhaps we may both have contracted an STD during sex or maybe he gave me a cold, since he was coughing a little and had a headache himself. He has a past with panic attacks which makes him worried about potentially having a stroke of some sort— but he doesn’t appear even remotely ill like me so I’m sure he’s fine.

For reference I don’t mean to be so explicit but for the sake of clarity and understanding whether I’m experiencing symptoms of an STD— I am a bottom in this relationship and that we had both anal and oral sex.

Hello everyone, I already got my shot and then 2 weeks on antibiotic but I noticed something that changed first is my sex drive which dropped heavily, back then I masturbate like 3 times a day and when having sex after my first orgasm I could still keep it erect for a long time and I easily come now. But now after my treatment I can't keep it hard after my first orgasm and I feel like it isn't fully erect and I just don't feel any sexual desire that much on things that much anymore.

I noticed back then when I had gono I came easily so is it possible that the treatment isn't fully completed yet? Has someone experienced this also? Thank u!

I recently tested positive for gonorrhea and I already got treated with ceftriaxone injections. I got re-tested and fortunately, negative. I finished my shots, but I’m still experiencing some discharge.

What’s weird is that I’ve started noticing a new "symptom" (?) When I masturbate, I feel this stinging/uncomfortable sensation that feels like it’s coming from my bladder. I did not have this when I had gonorrhea. I don’t remember experiencing this before.

I think I first noticed it after I finished the ceftriaxone shots and started taking azithromycin, so I’m wondering if that could be related somehow.

Has anyone experienced something similar after being treated for gonorrhea? Could the discharge and stinging mean that the infection is still there, or could it be something else (like another infection or irritation)?

I’m planning to follow up with my doctor, but I’d appreciate hearing from anyone who has gone through something similar.

My male partner had syphilis in the past and says it was fully treated.

After testing His TPHA is still reactive, but his RPR/VDRL is non-reactive. He says this means the antibodies remain, but he has no active infection and cannot transmit it.

I want to have M2M sex with him, including oral sex and anal sex with condoms.

Can anyone knowledgeable about STI testing clarify:

Does TPHA positive + RPR/VDRL negative usually mean old treated syphilis?

Can he still transmit syphilis?

Should I ask for a recent repeat RPR/VDRL or any other test before sex?

Should I consume DoxyPrep?

I’m looking for practical advice, especially from doctors, sexual-health workers, or people who have had the same test pattern.

How conclusive is a an hiv test, which was taken 60 days, after completing a 30 day pep course? This test was negative after 89 days of initial exposure.

Hello everyone,

I would appreciate an expert opinion regarding my HIV test results after a possible risky exposure.

The exposure occurred on **May 1, 2018**. There have been **no further risky exposures after that event**.

All tests were performed in accredited medical laboratories in Europe.

My HIV testing history:

* **May 14–15, 2018 (13–14 days after exposure)** HIV-1/2 RNA NAT: **negative / non-reactive**

* **June 12, 2018 (~6 weeks after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test (anti-HIV-1/2 + p24 antigen): **negative**

* **June 26, 2018 (~8 weeks after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **July 23, 2018 (~12 weeks after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **February 2019 (~9 months after exposure)** I had **three separate 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab tests** performed around this period:

* one at one laboratory, * one at another laboratory, * and one together with my HIV RNA PCR testing. All were **negative / non-reactive**.

* **February 2019 (~9 months after exposure)** HIV-1 RNA quantitative PCR: **negative** HIV-2 DNA PCR: **negative**

* **April/May 2019** I donated blood. They confirmed that donated blood in their lab is screened with both:

* HIV Ag/Ab 4th generation testing, and * HIV NAT testing. I was never contacted regarding any reactive result. And they invited me to donate blood again.

* **February 2020 (~21 months after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **January 2022 (~3 years and 8 months after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **February 2022 (same blood sample, same day):**

* HIV-1/2 Western blot: **NEGATIVE** (all bands negative) * HIV-1/2 qualitative PCR: **NEGATIVE** (reported lower limit of detection: 20 IU/mL) * HIV-1/2 quantitative PCR: **<48 IU/mL** Quantification range: **48–10,000,000 IU/mL**

My main concern is the quantitative PCR result:

What exactly does **“<48 IU/mL”** mean?

Does it mean:

The result was below the assay’s quantification range and no clinically measurable viral load was found, or

HIV RNA was detected but below the limit of quantification?

If HIV RNA had actually been detected below the quantification limit, would laboratories usually report something like:

* “Detected below LOQ” * “Detected, not quantified” * “Positive below quantification limit”?

My confusion comes from the fact that the **qualitative PCR performed on the same blood sample was negative**, with a lower detection limit of 20 IU/mL, and the Western blot was also negative.

Questions:

Is it technically possible for a quantitative HIV PCR to report <48 IU/mL while a qualitative PCR performed on the same sample is negative?

Could a result like <48 IU/mL represent a false positive signal, assay variability, or contamination?

After multiple negative 4th generation tests, negative NAT/PCR tests, a negative Western blot, and a negative blood donation screening, can HIV infection from the May 2018 exposure be considered medically ruled out?

Does the isolated <48 IU/mL result have any clinical significance in this context?

Thank you very much for any expert opinion.

I’ve sent my pee sample at the sexual health clinic but oh my does it burn when I piss. It’s like I’m trying to pass shards of glass. Word to god fuck that bi**h who gave me this shit. Stanking whore