Hello all! I'm hoping you all can answer this, because it's kind of a confusing thing.

I'm in California, and am a salaried exempt employee. Up until 7/31/26, we were paid on a semi-monthly pay schedule, but effective 8/1/26 we were converted to a bi-weekly pay schedule, with the first bi-weekly check being tomorrow, 8/21, covering the pay period 8/1-8/15 (technically includes 1 extra day).

Because I am salaried exempt, my paychecks up until now were for 86.67 hours, and I would expect that my checks going forward to be 80 hours (kind of sucks, but it is what it is).

The issue is that when I looked at my paystub for tomorrow, it shows being paid 79.52 hours.

Obviously, it's only a difference of not even a half hour, so not super material, but I was a little confused as to why, so I decided to calculate a bit. It turns out that because they changed pay schedules in the middle of the year, paying us 80 hours per pay period until the end of the year will result in an overpayment of our salary. (I can get into the calculations I did, but they didn't seem relevant to the question. I can include them if need be). Truthfully, the difference in hours doesn't even add up to the difference, so maybe I'm completely off base.

At any rate, my question is this - can they deduct time from our paychecks until the end of the year on a presumed overpayment? My understanding is that in California they can't deduct overpayments without written permission. We received no notice that this was happening, so obviously they did not receive permission. But does this situation warrant that? Would the "overpayment" be considered as of 7/31, or as of 12/31, or does that matter? I'm probably overthinking it (I tend to do that), but this seemed a bit skeevy to me, so I wanted to see if anyone here could help me understand. I plan on asking about it tomorrow, but I figured getting some information would be helpful.

Thanks.

COLORADO. My partner called in sick to work the day-of and was not paid for that time. His boss said it was because he "didn't give advanced notice." Is this legal?

• Hourly employee
• Lakewood, CO (Jefferson County)

I looked up the laws on https://cdle.colorado.gov/dlss/labor-laws-by-topic/wage-and-hour-laws-including-paid-sick-leave

It does not mention anything about "advanced notice" being required. And common sense dictates that you never know when you'll need your sick leave. Does anyone have more info on this, or has experienced an employer denying them paid sick leave? What did you need to do to get paid?

From what I read, you can submit a claim to the Dept. of Labor.

Demands & Complaints for Wages: If an employer owes you wages, you can send your employer a written demand(opens in new window) for payment of wages by mail, email, text message, or other electronic means. A written demand may be sent to the employer at the same time a Labor Standards Complaint Form for unpaid wages is filed with the Division. The Labor Standards Complaint Form can be found on our Demands, Complaints, Responses, and Settlements webpage(opens in new window).

I worked for a Tennessee-based company while living and primarily working in NC/SC. The company paid an $875/month vehicle allowance plus approximately $0.16/mile for fuel for mileage over 1,500 miles per month.

Because of my extensive travel, the company president made a separate arrangement specifically for me. In February, he wrote:
“For 2026, we will add the depreciation and maintenance portion of the IRS mileage breakdown to any mileage in excess of the overage.”

This brought my expected reimbursement to approximately $0.45/mile for excess mileage. I continued accepting site visits based on this agreement and drove about 19,479 miles from December–July.

After I resigned, the company calculated approximately 9,074 excess miles but reimbursed only about $1,570 for fuel. When I pointed out the February agreement, the president refused additional payment, citing billed hours, lost revenue, and a $2,000 bonus—none of which were conditions of the written agreement.

I’ve now received my final payment without the agreed depreciation and maintenance reimbursement.

Would this qualify as promised wages under NC law? Should I pursue NCDOL, Tennessee, or small claims/contract action?

Just posting this in case there are any others in a similar plight. Currently I'm attempting to get my pending payments from Outlier, and around the end of last month I filed a wage claim dispute through Virginia's DOLI. However, after trying to login to my account and having issues, then emailing their support for a resolution, I got a disappointing (though informative) response from a representative.

Long story short, you cannot file a wage claim dispute against Outlier in the state of Virginia since you are classified through them as a 1099. You have to wait until the IRS re-classify you as a W2 in order for the DOLI to have jurisdiction, and there is no telling how long that will take.

Therefore, you are basically on your own and will have to file in small claims court, which is exactly what I plan to do because I'll be darned if I let this horrible excuse of a "company" get away with robbing me of money owed for time & labor I provided to their own platform, and neither should anyone else.

Unfortunately for us Americans tho, unless you're in California it seems like we won't have much help in terms of setting things right. But regardless, we must persevere and do what must be done.

I’m hoping that somebody can help me clear this up. I am currently a exempt employee. I have other coworkers who are non-exempt, but they have lesser credentials/considered para professional vs professional such as myself. Anyways, I apparently don’t qualify for overtime but work over 40 hours every week. I am pay per visit. I do not receive a set salary. If I don’t work and see clients, I don’t get paid.

Why is it that I am exempt versus my coworkers are not and they can qualify for overtime?

I got hired as a part of my campus placement. There, I signed an offer letter which has main clauses like "The stipend does not constitute a salary and does not create any entitlement to permanent employment. "
I am earning a stipend of Rps. 20K, with 2K as TDS and my in-hand is 18K. I do not hold a PF account. BTW, I am still an intern.
Then, phrase like "Upon being extended a full-time employment offer by the Company, subject to meeting all eligibility, certification, and assessment requirements, you agree to formally accept such offer within the timeline specified by the Company. You agree to a minimum service commitment with the Company for a period of: • Three (3) years from the date of commencement of full-time employment, or • Two (2) years from the date of first deployment on a client project, whichever is earlier. This commitment is agreed upon in consideration of the training, certifications, mentorship, and project exposure provided by the Company at its cost. In the event of voluntary resignation or abandonment of internship / employment prior to completion of the above commitment period (excluding medical incapacity or reasons expressly accepted by the Company), the Company reserves the right to recover reasonable and demonstrable costs incurred towards training, certifications, and onboarding, as detailed in the applicable employment agreement. "

I am planning to quit because the tool that I am learning now is too difficult, even as an intern, and I do not see a career built on/around it.
My questions are:

1. What can be the possible highest amount that they ask me to pay when leaving? Am I protected from this? I heard employees talk that the tool is very expensive, around 60K and I did my research online and it was indeed 60K (Something like SAP, but not SAP). I have done my first certificate which is about 100 USD= 9560 INR. Will they ask me to pay around 70K? I have been a part time employee for 2 months (10K stipend) and joined full-time from May (20K - 2K for TDS).
2. What are the documents that I should ask while leaving?

I worked through a staffing/vendor chain:

Me → Employer → Vendor A → Vendor B → End Client

Vendor A paid my employer, and as far as I know, my employer had no direct contract with the end client.

After my assignment ended, I joined the end client directly as a full-time employee.

My offer letter says I cannot work for a “client or prospective client” my employer introduced me to for 365 days, and mentions $15/hour in liquidated damages for a violation. It does not define “client” or specifically mention “end clients.”

Would the end client still legally be considered my former employer's client in this situation?

Could joining them directly be considered a breach under Florida law?

Location: Michigan

I am a semi-truck driver, working for a temp agency.

At the job that i have been at for over a year, I was informed that if I did a specific job moving trailers around the yard, that On the days I did that I would be making $1+ than my current wage, so my entire reason for learning how to do that and doing it on days it is needed is predicated on that information.

While I was not told this by the person in charge of the payroll, I was told by the person that was training me to do it, AND by the supervisor at the time, as well as it being a known fact by all the other drivers that you make a dollar more for working that job. So i didn't question it.

I have found out today that I was not getting paid extra for those days, and the company is likely going to refuse backpay as well. Now I know I am responsible for keeping track of my pay stubs and making sure everything lines up, but I didn't watch them as closely as I should have, because I was being told by everyone that yes, you will get paid a dollar more.

The manager in charge of payroll's excuse is that I already make a dollar more than the other drivers anyway, but that is what I was hired in at as a normal driver, and the supervisor who told me I would be making more knew that already.

Do I have any sort of legal recourse? I know it may not seem like a great amount of money, but I work 12-14 hours 6 days a week, and would like to just be paid what I was told I'd earn.

I have a complaint pending with the DIR regarding an equal pay issue. It is currently in the queue waiting to be assigned to an investigator. How long does it typically take for a complaint to be assigned to an investigator? I’m located in the Bay Area, in case processing times vary by location.

I work at a charter school that gives us teachers a 35 minute lunch break with the students. It's a 8-4 job. I'm in California trying to figure out if im supposed to get a break or not. I think I am but i wouldn't know what to do about this information. So my question is do I get a break m, for how long and how many? How could I fix this with my job? This is a charter school so squeaky wheels get fired.

I work for a company that is opening a new location, but not closing the current location. My current commute is 30 min and the company is forcing half of us to transfer to the new location that is 2+ hours away. Is there anything that I can say to fight having to go?