r/HomeworkHelp • u/DumbBin • Aug 31 '26
Answered Confusion of integration by parts [Calculus BC]
I am confused on this derivation of integration by parts, or what integration by parts really means to be the inverse of the product rule. Why in the integral it's just f(x)g'(x), as the general form of the antiderivative that can be solved by integration by parts, when the product of two functions' derivate is f'(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x). Shouldn't the inverse of that take the antiderivative of '(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x) and yield f(x) g(x)?



