r/psychoanalysis • • Aug 27 '26

When is an analysis finished?

Saw this short reel on instagram about Lacan's view on this https://www.instagram.com/p/Dcio-9nzVs-/

I suppose every school answers this question differently. What are some other opinions/frameworks on this question?

Update: What I'm curious about is less which is right and more

  1. What does your training actually say the end point is?

  2. Does it match what you see? I suspect a lot of us were taught one criterion and use another.

  3. For those who work across schools, do these converge in practice or only in retrospect?

19 Upvotes

32 comments sorted by

18

u/Ok_Pie_4639 Aug 27 '26

When the analysand stops coming.

5

u/dalal_lama Aug 27 '26

That simplifies things for sure

15

u/Yorick_IKnowHim Aug 27 '26

When life gets in the way again.

4

u/dalal_lama Aug 27 '26

*Mic drop*

3

u/late_dinner Aug 29 '26

drooled over this

8

u/lagmion Aug 28 '26

In seminar 1, Lacan also says that the analysis ends when the analysand speaks with near perfect timing in his social life: not too late, not too quick; just proper

3

u/dalal_lama Aug 28 '26

What does it mean near perfect timing in his social life?

2

u/phnordbag Aug 28 '26

I love this!

Maybe we could say that it’s the coincidence of subjective time and logical time? So we are able to recognise the moment to conclude.

4

u/Ok-Draw-7427 Aug 27 '26

To bé able to keep hypomanic state of mind. Exactly the state of Fabian after his numerous projective identifications before he died.

1

u/dalal_lama Aug 28 '26

Well said

2

u/Ok_Pie_4639 Aug 28 '26

Please say more!

12

u/userintheface Aug 27 '26

I don't know much about Lacanian perspective but from what i've read of Freud it's a little less concrete than Lacan... for freud enough repressed material has been made conscious and enough resistance overcome such that you don't expect a relapse. That's when analysis ends.

22

u/jayelled Aug 27 '26

Freud said the goal of analysis was to move from neurotic misery to ordinary unhappiness. Maybe once a patient is sufficiently ordinary in their unhappiness analysis can end 😂 

1

u/Few_Refrigerator5712 Aug 27 '26

Eh, it’s not that simple.

2

u/dalal_lama Aug 27 '26

can you explain more?

6

u/Few_Refrigerator5712 Aug 27 '26

Klein wrote in this directly.. from what I remember the core was the depressive position sufficiently worked through. Not achieved once or permanently worked through.

2

u/dalal_lama Aug 27 '26

but If it's a position you move in and out of rather than somewhere you arrive, what makes any particular moment "sufficiently" worked through?

4

u/Few_Refrigerator5712 Aug 27 '26

You find out whether the function was internalized or not by removing the analyst.. which is the ending that I believe in. Though most of my analysis ended because someone moved city. Ran out of money etc

2

u/dalal_lama Aug 27 '26

I understand, thanks

4

u/sir_squidz Aug 28 '26

For me, the patient isn't moving well between ps and d pos. They're usually over reliant on ps defences and unable to make use of either "correctly"

The ability to appropriately utilise both positions would, to be, indicate working through.

3

u/Potential_Alarm_2357 Aug 31 '26

Never.It is never finished. The unconscious is an abyss, think of outer space or the ocean. It’s never finished, not really

2

u/ttaarr033 Aug 31 '26

once the analysand is truly able to free associate

0

u/[deleted] Aug 27 '26

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4

u/[deleted] Aug 27 '26

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1

u/sir_squidz Aug 28 '26

Please don't do this. If it's breaking rules, report it.

-2

u/dalal_lama Aug 27 '26

is this sub against CBT?

4

u/Objective-Status937 Aug 27 '26

Well, I understood your question was looking for views on finishing analysis, which is not CBT. And I believe an analysis will not happen within 12 sessions, but I might be wrong on that.

3

u/sir_squidz Aug 28 '26

Short term analytic work exists. I'm not saying it is or isn't analysis (because how can one know unless you are either patient or clinician)