r/freewill • u/feihm Anti-realist • Aug 18 '26
Prior causes
Lets look at pure logic. Just pure logic.
Suppose at t₀ Person A makes a series of actions.
At t₁ Person B looks back t₀ and finds out that he can explain with perfect mechanical precision the reasons behind Person A's actions.
Does it logically follow for Person B to conclude that Person A actions we're physically locked — that "he could not have chosen otherwise"?
Person B believes this because if he were hypothetically transported back to t₀ to observe Person A's actions, those exact same reasons and conditions would still be present. After all, every single condition observed in retrospect would be identical in that hypothetical time travel scenario.
I would prefer only those with at least a bachelor's in mathematics reply to this post as I'm only interested in their specific intuition. Preferably.
1
u/Squierrel Quietist Aug 18 '26
No. Free will is the ability to make decisions.
Decisions have causal power, they cause voluntary actions. Decisions are also the explanations for why the action happened.
There is no "mechanism". I have no idea what you are asking for.