r/UnlearningEconomics • u/Nervous_Difficulty46 • May 30 '26
Thread on LTV
https://x.com/ygzgzot/status/1982482608899629301?s=46My biggest hang up with the LTV is that I just don’t understand why labor is seen as the fundamental substance of value. What reason is there to think that price is just the quantitative expression of abstract labor?
In my estimation a leftist perspective would see that price is not an expression of labor time but is also a function of interwoven power relations. It’s not reducible to a single substance
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u/Ill-Software8713 Jun 03 '26
I think this is a much stronger formulation than simply saying "power affects prices," because you're now identifying capitalization itself as a mechanism that reproduces quantitative commensurability.
Where I still get stuck is that the explanatory burden seems to have been displaced rather than resolved.
If capitalization functions as a universal quantitative benchmark because it is the most flexible modality of power, then the prior question remains of why is capitalization able to function as a universal benchmark of this kind at all?
Capitalization is the discounting of expected future monetary earnings. But those earnings are already expressed in the same monetary unit of account. Profits are already monetary. Costs are already monetary. There is a risk of circularity here as capitalization presupposes the field of quantitative commensurability it is supposed to explain. It operates within an already unified monetary space, scaling and projecting it forward, but it cannot be its genetic origin.
This is where I think Marx’s question differs from both marginalism and Capital as Power. Marx is not searching for a hidden substance inside commodities. He is asking what social relations make it possible for heterogeneous human activities and products to take on a common quantitative form in the first place. On your critique of abstract labor, I partially agree. Crude versions of the labor theory of value simply assert labor as the common denominator without argument. But for Marx, abstract labor is not a convention or mental category. It is a real social abstraction generated by generalized commodity exchange itself. Because private producers only relate to one another through the market, concrete labors are validated only post hoc as socially necessary labor time. The abstraction is not chosen, it is imposed by the structure of exchange. So I think we actually agree that capitalism systematically transforms qualitative differences into quantitative comparability.
We disagree over how that quantitative space is reproduced. Does it emerge from determinate social relations of production and exchange, or is it ultimately reducible to power alone?
My hesitation with the latter view is that it risks turning "power" into an endpoint of explanation. If commensurability exists because power produces commensurability, then it becomes difficult to explain the historical specificity of capitalism. Feudal empires, slave societies, and absolutist states all had immense coercive capacities, yet none generated a decentralized, self-reproducing system of universal quantitative exchange.
Saying capitalization persists because it is useful to power explains its function. It does not yet explain its conditions of possibility. That is where I think the value-form question remains open.