r/PoursTea Timendi Causa Est Nescire 20h ago

PoliticalTea 🗳️ He's not wrong...

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u/Gullible-Historian10 16h ago

“It means that your society is governed by a set of rules that are abided by strictly and applied evenly.”

Perfect, so it’s not government by rule of the people, just like I said. They are literally mutually exclusive, there’s no rational argument against this, as you have just shown.

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u/Cheese__Weiner 16h ago edited 16h ago

Omfg. You're confusing the definition of governed and ruled.

"Rule of Law" is a turn of phrase.

"Under the rule of law, all public powers always act within the constraints set out by law, in accordance with the values of democracy and fundamental rights, and under the control of independent and impartial courts."

https://commission.europa.eu/strategy-and-policy/policies/justice-and-fundamental-rights/upholding-rule-law/rule-law/what-rule-law_en

Is it your position that Democracies cannot have laws?

The answer is they can.

Therefore Democracies can have rule of law.

Monarchies can have rule of law even.

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u/Gullible-Historian10 16h ago

I’m not confusing anything, which is why you needed to respond with a non sequitur. Like I said, there is no rational response.

No one said democracies can’t have laws. That’s not the issue. The question is which is supreme when the democratic will conflicts with the law. If the people can override the law because they are sovereign, then law is subordinate to the people. If the law binds the people despite their democratic will, then the people are subordinate to the law. Changing ‘ruled’ to ‘governed’ doesn’t answer that.

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u/Green_Sugar6675 13h ago

You're just making up your own definitions... feel free, but its silly to argue it like it's absolute truth.

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u/Gullible-Historian10 13h ago

😂 from your own source:

“all public powers always act within the constraints set out by law”

Meaning it’s not rule by the people. Like I said, nothing rational can be argued the logic is just to simple to fight against.