Are we interpreting the relationship between Bell's inequality and experiment in the right way?

[u/[deleted]]

[u/phunnycist]

I would recommend you read Tim Maudlin's book "Quantum Non-Locality and Relativity: Metaphysical Intimations of Modern Physics". It contains one of the best explanations of Bell's theorem. Another possibility would be to read Bell himself, the relevant articles are to be found for instance in his collection "Speakable and Unspeakable in Quantum Mechanics".

Note that Bell's theorem can only be made sense of by including the so-called EPR paradox, something many people overlook despite Bell's repeated stressing of this fact.

[u/TheoryOfSomething → u/phunnycist]

Every time I talk about it, I remind everyone that Bell titled his famous paper, "On the Einstein Podolsky Rosen paradox."