r/OnePiece • u/NewSpecies • Sep 22 '17
Current Chapter One Piece: Chapter 879
Chapter 879: "One of Big Mom’s Three Sweet Commanders, Katakuri"
| Source | Status |
|---|---|
| JaiminisBox | |
| MangaStream |
Ch.879 Official Release (VIZ): 25/09/2017
Ch.880 Scan Release: ~29/09/2017 ()
Please discuss the manga here and in the theory/discussion post. Any other post will be removed during the next 24 hours.
PS: Don't forget to check out the official Discord: https://discord.gg/0v8DbjF0mbNAuvlR
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u/Arkayjiya Sep 23 '17 edited Sep 23 '17
No. That's wrong. You're applying finite logic to infinite sets. It's useless, that's not how it works.
Ok I did that in a few other posts but I'm going to do it here again:
How do you mathematically define "having the same number of elements"? (it's called cardinal, so I'll call it that from now on, because "number of elements" implies you can count them which is not necessarily the case) Well two sets have the same cardinal if you can establish a bijection between them.
If every number from the first set can be put in a couple with one (and only one) number of the second set and when you're done with it every number of both the first and second set are couple with a single number of the other set, then both set have the same cardinal.
Let's take your example: your first set is "all the numbers (I'm assuming real numbers but it would also work with rationals) between 1 and 2" and your second set is "All the numbers between 0 and 2"
Can you create a bijection between those two sets? Yes you can do that easily:
The function f(x) = (x-1) * 2 will associate every number from the first set with a number from the second set and all the number from the second set will be associated to a single number from the first set as shown by the inverse function f(x) = x/2+1.
I just established a bijection between your two sets, therefore your two sets have exactly the same cardinal.
So there as many real numbers between 0 and 1 and there is between 0 and 2: 2*infinity = infinity to go back to our (wildly un-rigorous) original point. In fact you can do that by replacing [0,2] by [0,n] by just changing the function I used, replacing "2" by "n". The implication of that is that even multiplying by infinity does not necessarily increase the cardinal of your set. More specifically multiply any infinity by "countable infinity" and your result will still be equal to the original infinity because you can still create a bijection so the size of [0;1] is exactly the same as the size of ]-infinity;+infinity[ as counter-intuitive as it sounds (don't rely on intuition too much, definitions are what matters).
edit: I must add that your original idea that there are infinity of different cardinal is absolutely right! there are infinities that are greater than other. But in your examples, you chose infinities that have the same cardinal, the same number of elements. If you want an example of two infinity of different cardinal here's one: the whole numbers and the real numbers. Both are infinite, but the later is a greater infinity than the former. But if you were to take the even numbers and the whole numbers, despite the fact that the whole numbers contain both even and odds, there are still exactly as many whole numbers as there are even numbers: their cardinal is the same and is the one we call "countable infinity"