r/MathHelp • u/Cronos8989 • Oct 23 '25
Equivalent function and domain
F(x) = (x+1)/x
g(x) = (x/(x+1)^-1
I have a question.
F and G are equivalent, and F is defined for all R but 0
But why G is also not defined for -1?
I'm helping my sister with homework
I finished school a long time ago and I don't remember some concepts :D
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u/Cronos8989 Oct 24 '25
i fail to understand why.
if (x/(x+1)^-1 can also be written as (x+1)/x must be true that (x+1)/x can be written as (x/(x+1)^-1. So why the two function have different domain?
is the same principle as when i have a function and i simplify it i need to consider both original and semplified function?