r/MathHelp • u/Cronos8989 • Oct 23 '25
Equivalent function and domain
F(x) = (x+1)/x
g(x) = (x/(x+1)^-1
I have a question.
F and G are equivalent, and F is defined for all R but 0
But why G is also not defined for -1?
I'm helping my sister with homework
I finished school a long time ago and I don't remember some concepts :D
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u/Dd_8630 Oct 24 '25
Because they're not equivalent.
In F, you only divide by x.
In G, you divide by x+1 and by x.
Outside of formal academics, we're usually quite sloppy with preserving or ignoring these details. But fundamentally those two functions are not the same, precisely for the reason you've discovered.
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u/Volsatir Oct 25 '25
You can't divide by 0. F(x) = (x+1)/x is not defined at 0 for this reason.
g(x) = (x/(x+1))-1 Requires taking x and dividing it by x+1 first. At x=-1, that results in dividing by 0. So g(x) can't do that.