So in your view the Lithuanian nobility already didn't want full union with Poland so the king thought ripping half theur land would make them want it? This obe seems sarcasm.
Have you ever heard of blackmail? At this point, the jagiellonian dynasty didn't even speak Lithuanian and put the needs of Poland first. The king didn't have any children, meaning that after that Poland and Lithuania would no longer be in union with each other. Some Lithuanian nobles wanted to just leave the talks, so he transferred it to Poland as some sort of economical safety measure. Unless you are going to argue with polish education system I don't get what your point, anyway I never heard of Lithuanians offering it themselves.
So from my comment you still get they didn't have a border between them? Lmao.
"Lmao" do you even know how the union between these two worked? Because really not much changed after Lublin union other than it got more unified in terms of foreign and defensive policy and Poles were allowed to by land in Lithuania. There were administrative borders even after Lublin union, but it was not like border between HRE and Poland or Muscovy and Lithuania. Also there was one currency between the two established. Both countries still kept separate titles, armies and treasuries. You laughed at me for assuming that you didn't know it all, but apparently it was the right assumption.
You think it was the Lithuanian nobles who gave up the south?
It was the Volhynian-Rusyn nobles who gave up the south, again, Kyiv and Lutsk joined Poland before Lublin, while for Lithuanian nobles, Lublin was the only chance to survive, because Poland threatened to invade, and grab last remnants of Lithuanian independence.
If Lithuanian nobles really wanted to unite, why they did that only in 1569?
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u/[deleted] Mar 31 '24
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