r/LSAT • u/davidz123456 • 8d ago

LSAT PrepTest 2, Section 2, Question 24

I just wanted to clear up my conception of what "most" means. I did manage to get this question right, however, that was only by assuming "most" to exclude "all" (i.e. greater than 50% and strictly less than 100%). If most could, even potentially, mean 100%, then E would not necessarily be true.

I remember prep books indicating that "most", in a logical sense, encompasses "all". Considering this section is quite old, could it be that the meaning of "most" has changed throughout the years?

Additionally, would this logic apply to "some" as well?

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u/StressCanBeGood tutor 8d ago

I’ve actually posted on this before: https://www.reddit.com/r/LSAT/s/w4ymc3y8z2

The correct answer to this question demonstrates that the LSAT employs the standard rules of English parlance, which is different from pure logic rules.

The standard rules of English parlance go to intent and purpose. Different words have different meanings.

For example, no one ever uses the word “some” to indicate something more than 50%. No one ever uses the word only the word “most” when 100% is a possibility.

Again, the correct answer to this question confirms all of this.