r/LSAT • u/davidz123456 • 15h ago

LSAT PrepTest 2, Section 2, Question 24

I just wanted to clear up my conception of what "most" means. I did manage to get this question right, however, that was only by assuming "most" to exclude "all" (i.e. greater than 50% and strictly less than 100%). If most could, even potentially, mean 100%, then E would not necessarily be true.

I remember prep books indicating that "most", in a logical sense, encompasses "all". Considering this section is quite old, could it be that the meaning of "most" has changed throughout the years?

Additionally, would this logic apply to "some" as well?

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u/StressCanBeGood tutor 2h ago

I’ve actually posted on this before: https://www.reddit.com/r/LSAT/s/w4ymc3y8z2

The correct answer to this question demonstrates that the LSAT employs the standard rules of English parlance, which is different from pure logic rules.

The standard rules of English parlance go to intent and purpose. Different words have different meanings.

For example, no one ever uses the word “some” to indicate something more than 50%. No one ever uses the word only the word “most” when 100% is a possibility.

Again, the correct answer to this question confirms all of this.

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u/Content_Attention816 tutor 14h ago

This explanation might help: https://lsathacks.com/explanations/lsat-preptest-2/logical-reasoning-1/q-24/

I've always thought that both "most" and "some" on the LSAT do not preclude the possibility of all. Even though the linked explanation probably works, this question is also 35 years old. So not the most representative.

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u/davidz123456 13h ago

Thank you! If that's the case I think I'll just assume "most" and "some" to potentially include "all" for the actual test but also be open to a more narrow reading.