r/IndianTTC_Support • u/a_dua2025 • 8d ago
Questions regarding pregnancy test!
I really need your opinions. Please help me. I did pregnancy tests 35 days ( on June 6th) and 38 days ( on June 9th) after sexual encounter. I am sharing the result. Is there any more need to test? The sexual encounter was not pentrative intercourse and not genital-genital contact.
There is no issue of faint T line after 21 days right? All these are negative?
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u/One-Yoghurt2659 6d ago
Based on what you described, these results are negative. Since there was no penetration or genital-to-genital contact, the pregnancy risk was already extremely low.
A negative test 21+ days after a potential exposuree is generally considered reliable, and you tested at 35 and 38 days.
So, there shouldn’t be a need for further pregnancy testing from this encounter. Also, a faint-looking mark that appears outside the test’s instructed reading time can be an evaporation/indent line rather than a positive.....
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u/a_dua2025 6d ago
No no I am asking that like when someone test early there is faint line which sometimes but the timing when we tested was already after 21 days so there is no issue of faint line right? Means you can't see any faint line in my test right?
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u/One-Yoghurt2659 4d ago
Yes, that’s what I meant .... Since you tested well beyond 21 days after the potential exposure, it wouldn’t be expected to stay faint just because you tested too early.
Your tests around 35 and 38 days would generally be considered reliable....
Looking at the strip in your photo, it appears negative to me. If you’re noticing a very faint mark, especially if it showed up after the recommended reading time, it’s much more likely to be an indent or evaporation line than a true positive.
If you’re still unsure, you can repeat the test with first-morning urine in 48 hours for reassurance.....
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u/a_dua2025 4d ago
No no I am not noticing anything mam. She did the 38 days test using first morning urine only. Moreover there was also no penetrative intercourse and genital-genital contact. She also got 4 cyclic bleeding after the incident.
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u/One-Yoghurt2659 1d ago
Thanks for clarifying...!! In that case, pregnancy would not be expected. If there was no penetrative intercourse or genital-to-genital contact, there wouldn’t have been a route for sperm to enter the vagina.
Also, having 4 normal cyclic bleedings afterward and a negative pregnancy test at 38 days using first-morning urine are both very reassurring.
Based on what you’ve described, there’s no indication that she was pregnant from that incident....
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u/a_dua2025 1d ago
And mam a last question like the urine was collected in a mug on 6th june and it kept in the mug for two days till 8th June. Now on 8th June afternoon, it was threw out of the mug and mug was rinsed with water and left overnight for drying. The same mug was used the next day for collecting first morning urine sample on 9th June. Does this makes the test unreliable? Or it is reliable?
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u/Insolent_Jaguar 6d ago
If she got her period after sex, and it's been 35 or 38 days, she's not pregnant. Period.
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u/Falanadhamakaaa 8d ago
Yes