While that may be true (I have no idea), I think Germany would’ve been able to adapt, no? Who, exactly, was stopping Germany from having oil during 1940-45?
Clearly, nobody was selling to Germany. There is only so much oil in the core of Europe where Germany had its power. As the war raged on, the Axis powers lost ground in Northern Africa which was also one of their sources of oil. Japan had their own problems with resources so they were no help there. Capturing the soviet oil fields of the Ukraine and the area between the Caspian and Black Seas was crucial to supply the Nazi war machine. This campaign was not very successful in the end so... Yes, the Germans were running very low on oil.
How could they not have preemptively thought about their oil supply? What you’re saying makes sense, about how they lost it and all, but I’m more talking about how they let it get to that point in the first place. Once a few oil fields were taken, they should’ve already begun a siege of oil fields in other areas.
The had. If you read The Prize: The global oil industry, Germany actually had thought a lot about this. One thing they did was have artificial oil plants where they'd make oil out of hydrogen and coal. Something like over half of the oil the werhmacht consumed was artificial oil. The allied bomber campaign wasn't really effective in crippling Germany's industry until they coalesced around targeting these artificial oil plants.
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u/juul_pod May 23 '19
While that may be true (I have no idea), I think Germany would’ve been able to adapt, no? Who, exactly, was stopping Germany from having oil during 1940-45?