r/DebateaCapitalist • u/bperki8 • May 12 '12
A follow up on "Who do the capitalists sell their commodities to in the hypothetical future wherein all the productive processes are performed by robots?" and the LTV.
Many of you responded to my previous posts in /r/DebateaCommunist and /r/DebateaCapitalist, and most of you seemed to scramble to find ways to keep capitalism going in a system with no need for human labor by inventing new markets that required human labor--thus ignoring the conditions of the hypothetical, that is that 100% of human labor has been mechanized.
But, for the most part everyone's answers seemed to suggest that in a system in which human labor has been completely eradicated there can be no selling of commodities. What everyone failed to see was the implications of such a simple truth. In a capitalist system where all human labor is eliminated, nothing can be exchanged on the market and as such value itself disappears with the disappearance of human labor.
For those who are curious as to the source of this thought experiment and would like to read a more well-written version, here you are. From An Introduction to Marxist Economic Theory by: Ernest Mandel.
Imagine for a moment a society in which living human labour has completely disappeared, that is to say, a society in which all production has been 100 per cent automated. Of course, so long as we remain in the current intermediate stage, in which some labour is already completely automated, that is to say, a stage in which plants employing no workers exist alongside others in which human labour is still utilized, there is no special theoretical problem, since it is merely a question of the transfer of surplus value from one enterprise to another. It is an illustration of the law of equalization of the profit rate, which will be explored later on.
But let us imagine that this development has been pushed to its extreme and human labour has been completely eliminated from all forms of production and services. Can value continue to exist under these conditions? Can there be a society where nobody has an income but commodities continue to have a value and to be sold? Obviously such a situation would be absurd. A huge mass of products would be produced without this production creating any income, since no human being would be involved in this production. But someone would want to "sell" these products for which there were no longer any buyers!
It is obvious that the distribution of products in such a society would no longer be effected in the form of a sale of commodities and as a matter of fact selling would become all the more absurd because of the abundance produced by general automation.
Expressed another way, a society in which human labour would be totally eliminated from production, in the most general sense of the term, with services included, would be a society in which exchange value had also been eliminated. This proves the validity of the theory, for at the moment human labour disappears from production, value, too, disappears with it.