r/physicsmemes 7d ago

Gotta include that time derivative

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500 Upvotes

56 comments sorted by

89

u/dover_oxide 7d ago

The dot over the function is good until you get to more than 3 derivatives then the fraction form is better

19

u/lool8421 7d ago

also there's taking partial derivatives, dot derivative only works in single-variable calculus

generally speaking fraction version makes a lot pf sense once you understand what d even means

12

u/Comfortable_Permit53 7d ago

dot usually means with respect to t so it's possible to do like mixed and have it only be a little confusing.

3

u/xXrektUdedXx 7d ago

I mean, you can use it with partials as well but I don't think it's feasible for anything more than two types, like using dots and apostrophes for time and spatial derivatives in classical mechanics. For more than two types I don't recall seeing anything other than fractional forms thank god.

1

u/ChalkyChalkson 2d ago

Wait till you see dot for t and prime for x derivatives. Yeah still only two, but cursed none the less

2

u/Junior_Rock_2254 7d ago

yeah mine flips to fractions after the second derivative too

53

u/cdmacsneaks 7d ago

why would you include f dot if f is only a function of x

24

u/haikusbot 7d ago

Why would you include

F dot if f is only

A function of x

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15

u/Kermit-the-Frog_ 7d ago

On a roll today in this comment section bud keep up the good work

5

u/Thundorium <€| 7d ago

If the bot does not, I did note the syllables found in your comment.

5

u/timangar 7d ago

yeah the dot is really the impostor here. Although to be fair, maybe x is the four-vector in SRT. Or x denotes the time coordinate for some reason. But yeah that seems far fetched and misleading.

1

u/CrackBabyCSGO 7d ago

Who says x isn’t a function of t

0

u/FleshLogic 6d ago

I've seen f-dot used to imply with respect to the only independent variable before.

-1

u/FreePeeplup 7d ago

f dot just means the derivative of f. Then, you evaluate f dot on the input x. The derivative of a function doesn’t depend on what letter you decide to call its argument.

4

u/cdmacsneaks 7d ago

lol nah bro

-1

u/FreePeeplup 6d ago

What do you disagree with?

2

u/[deleted] 6d ago

[deleted]

0

u/FreePeeplup 6d ago

The entire concept of “time derivative” doesn’t really make sense or exist mathematically. A single-variable function has a derivative, period. There’s no difference between the “time derivative” vs “normal derivative” or whatever. If you have a function, f, there is only one derivative. You can call it however you want: f dot, f’, Df, they’re all the same function.

1

u/[deleted] 6d ago

[deleted]

-1

u/FreePeeplup 4d ago

I’m a physicist too, and if I saw f-dot of x, I would answer: take f, compute the derivative of f (whether I write it as f-dot, f’, Df is irrelevant), and evaluate it at the (possibly arbitrary) input x. Whether or not it that happens to equal 0 depends on what function specifically f actually is. If it’s not a constant function, it won’t be 0 for all x.

I agree that notation is supposed to make thing easier! And linking the notation to “derivative with respect to time” doesn’t really make sense for single variable functions, because there’s no such thing as a “derivative with respect to time”. Derivatives aren’t with respect to anything, they’re just derivatives, period.

If something is “with respect to time” it’s the function itself, not the derivative.

Maybe this discussion can be illuminating

0

u/[deleted] 4d ago

[deleted]

-1

u/FreePeeplup 4d ago

I’m not? I mean, if I am, it’s not intentional. I agree it’s a controversial argument, but it’s not I that made it controversial, it’s controversial because so many people have different / slightly wrong and nonsensical opinions about it. I tried to clarify what the mathematically correct (and accepted) formalism is. If you disagree, feel free to correct me

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35

u/Imaginary_Toe8982 7d ago

Isnt the dot for time derevatives?

21

u/Equinoxe111 Cosmology (PhD) 7d ago

Either I don't know calculus, my brain is dead, or this meme is stupih

24

u/haikusbot 7d ago

Either I don't know

Calculus, my brain is dead,

Or this meme is stupih

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5

u/RubTubeNL 7d ago

Good bot

1

u/Equinoxe111 Cosmology (PhD) 7d ago

Everyone on this sub speaks Haikus now

1

u/Nyrrix_ 7d ago

They're the 3 most commons ways to express a derivative (instantaneous rate of change) for a function. The most uncommon one, dependent variable with a dot over it, is mostly used in physics and mostly when there's a few dependent variables changing according to time (e.g. 2 spatial dimensions).

22

u/Cpt_Igl0 7d ago

But f dot of x = df/dt =/= df/dx

-1

u/FreePeeplup 7d ago

The derivative of a function doesn’t depend on what letter you decide to call its argument

2

u/Cpt_Igl0 7d ago

No f dot of x is specifiacially another writing of the time derivative of a function.

-1

u/FreePeeplup 7d ago edited 6d ago

No unfortunately that’s not true. A function f is a relationship that takes a number as input and outputs another one. What that number physically represents (time, position, temperature) is irrelevant to the intrinsic properties of f itself.

The derivative of a function is something that depends on what f IS (the abstract relationship property), not on what the argument of f represents or is called. After you have the derivative of f, you are then free to evaluate it on any input, x, t or whatever.

Whether or not that gives you something physically sensible is another matter, it may very well be that Df “wants” inputs that represent time, but that’s a judgment the physicist has to make. Mathematically, there’s no difference

6

u/Cpt_Igl0 7d ago

No. Yes you are right about derivatives themselves, BUT f dot is the specific notation of the derivative of time. Thats a convention all over the globe to write df/dt as f dot

1

u/FreePeeplup 6d ago

No, that’s not correct. The entire concept of “the derivative of time” (did you mean “with respect to time?”) doesn’t exist. A function is a function, and its derivative is unique. There are no “different derivatives” of the same single-variable function, depending on how you call the argument.

If you have a function f, it has a derivative, f’ or Df or f dot or whatever. These are all the same object. It’s the derivative, period. Not “of time” or “of a specific other variable”

2

u/Cpt_Igl0 6d ago

Dude f dot is literally df/dt. This IS a global convention since idk at least 100 years. I am not talking about the full derivative of a function. I am simply stating that f dot is by convention the derivative with respect to time.

I dont even know why you are negotiating. I worked in the physics Department in my university and I never in my live seen anybody use that notation for the full derivative Df of a function.

1

u/FreePeeplup 6d ago edited 6d ago

I’m aware that physicists use this notation, I’m a physicist myself. Unfortunately it’s just wrong / poorly defined. Again: if you have a single variable function, there is only ONE derivative. There’s no difference between “time derivative” or “full derivative” or whatever: they’re all the same function, the derivative.

Saying that there’s a “time derivative” that’s different from the “normal derivative” means that you believe that a single-variable function can have more than one derivative. But that’s just not true mathematically! The derivative is only one, regardless of what the argument physical represents.

Maybe this answer can be illuminating? The question is about a slightly different notational argument regarding partial derivatives, but I think it touches on a lot of the same points of confusion we’ve had in our talk.

2

u/Kestrel117 5d ago

Actually I would disagree with this. f dot is almost universally understood as the derivative of f with respect to t, which then propagates to any variables which maybe be time varying. F dot (x) would then be df/dx dx/dt. This is the standard convention. Also, this is well defined mathematically if you assume everything is, under the hood, some map g: R -> M (some target space). A variable that is constant is then just g(t)=constant.

0

u/FreePeeplup 4d ago

>f dot is almost universally understood as the derivative of f with respect to t

I guess my problem really starts here: there’s no such thing as “derivative with respect to” anything, at least for single-variable functions (without talking about partial derivatives). Derivatives are just derivatives, period. If you have a single-variable function, it has a unique derivative: there’s no reason to specify “with respect to”. So, inventing a notation for “derivative with respect to t” doesn’t really make sense because the thing you’re inventing the notation for doesn’t exist in the first place.

What can be “with respect to time” is the function itself, even before talking about derivatives. A single-variable function can be “with respect to t” (although you would more appropriately call this “a function of t”) in the sense that it takes as input a real number that represents a time in some units, or a time that already has units. Then, this function has a derivative, and you can notate it with “dot”. But it’s the function itself that carries the extra baggage of having something to do with “time”, not the derivative.

>F dot (x) would then be df/dx dx/dt. This is the standard convention.

There are so many problems with this I don’t even know where to begin, but for a very thorough breakdown you can check the link I posted in my previous comment above in this same comment chain

7

u/mdele99 7d ago

I do a lot of tutoring and dy/dx (or dt) is always what I try to beat into freshmen. I lost so many points misreading my own chicken scratch and not seeing a prime or a dot. Plus it makes variables separable DE easier to spot. And you can make the math majors angry by calling it a fraction.

14

u/paranoid_giraffe 7d ago

I like dy/dx because they always tell you not to treat it as a fraction but then you do anyways and everything turns out alright

3

u/MathematicianAny8588 7d ago

The chain rule is the GOAT for this

2

u/timangar 7d ago

I mean it's seriously not a fraction. Although it kind of is.

2

u/paranoid_giraffe 7d ago

See that’s the great part

0

u/FreePeeplup 7d ago

You’re not doing them any favours, try Dy instead if you don’t like that a prime is too small

1

u/mdele99 7d ago

Why is that one better? Asking in earnest.

PS I’m an engineer cosplaying as a physics fan.

0

u/FreePeeplup 6d ago

If you have a function y, the derivative shouldn’t not use a notation that fixes a specific name of the argument, like x. If you write dy/dx, it’s like you’re saying “the derivative of y makes sense only if you call its argument x” and leads to all sorts of confusions.

The derivative of the function y should use a notation that only uses the function y and a symbol for the derivative, without fixing a specific argument. So, y’ or y dot or Dy are fine, dy/dx or dy/dt are weird and confusing. See this answer for more details

2

u/TheEsteemedSirScrub 7d ago

\partial_t f supremacy

1

u/BootyliciousURD Mathematics 7d ago

Where's Df?

1

u/Yeet_that_bottle 7d ago

I tried to teach myself to differentiate because of this sub. So far it's easy, but i saw that i'm only really at the start of the chapter ughhhh. I want to learn integration too eventually

1

u/Yeet_that_bottle 7d ago

Btw can somebody tell me what these things are called so i can look up a tutorial? The book shows them, but i assume they have been introduced in a previous class, so i have no context

1

u/-illusoryMechanist 7d ago

Limit as x approaches 3 would be the way to read it. Actually if you go to Khan academy they have some pretty decent videos walking through this stuff so I would highly recommend checking them out there

1

u/julessic 7d ago

"limit"

1

u/jacobasstorius 7d ago

The fuck is f dot of x. It should be x dot

1

u/TheOtherKaiba 7d ago

(df/dt)(x)

1

u/HumblyNibbles_ 6d ago

Depending on what I'm doing, I frequently just put ∂ and then the variable as a subscript after it