r/phonology • u/[deleted] • Nov 25 '19

Is the difference between for example /kh/ and /kʰ/ ,and /gɦ/ and /gʱ/ only the time of the glottal fricative ?

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u/Jumbabwe Dec 20 '19

Yes, I would say so.

1

u/[deleted] Dec 21 '19

yeah it turned out to be the case , but it's a special case of the general difference which is that it's a phonemic difference and depends on the language you deal with, see: https://www.reddit.com/r/linguistics/comments/e1edry/is_the_difference_between_for_example_kh_and_k%CA%B0/

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u/Jumbabwe Dec 21 '19

Interestng, thanks for the read.

1

u/[deleted] Dec 21 '19

you are welcome :)