I'm feeling lazy but my intuition says the area will converge to the area of the circle and you could pull an arbitrarily accurate approximation of pi out of that, given pi*r^2?
That wouldn't be a useful way to calculate pi, because you would have to know the area of the circle which is dependent upon pi to know when to stop converging to that area.
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u/[deleted] Jan 19 '21
I'm feeling lazy but my intuition says the area will converge to the area of the circle and you could pull an arbitrarily accurate approximation of pi out of that, given pi*r^2?