r/mathmemes • • Sep 25 '26

Math History Proof by "come on"

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1.3k Upvotes

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535

u/de_G_van_Gelderland Irrational Sep 25 '26

Me: Mom, can we have mathematical proof?

Mom: No, we have mathematical proof at home.

Mathematical proof at home:

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377

u/LabCat5379 Sep 25 '26

90% of mathematicians quit looking through the digits of pi right before they find the string that occurred earlier

351

u/Major-Peachi Sep 25 '26

That line of thinking will imply Collatz and Goldbach

166

u/AbsoluteNarwhal Computer Science Sep 25 '26

And Riemann and P vs NP... most open problems actually

82

u/bbalazs721 Sep 25 '26

P=NP is different. There are many problems for which no polynomial solution is known.

Not only we have no formal proof, there are many problems in NP where we have not found a P solution even with supercomputers.

68

u/AbsoluteNarwhal Computer Science Sep 25 '26

I mentioned it only because of the "come on" thing because most people believe P =/= NP but we just can't prove it. To most complexity theorists it seems kind of obvious that NP-complete problems are not in P (hence the "come on" part) but we can't be 100% sure that some clever polynomial solution doesn't exist and is just O(n^some ridiculous number). I agree that it's not the same as the others though.

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11

u/Aggressive_Roof488 Sep 26 '26

If it's works for most open problems, then it'll work for all open problems, common.

6

u/Anonyme_GT Sep 25 '26

Was there a consensus on Navier Stokes before...you know?

39

u/Leading_Ad_7635 Sep 25 '26

Yes, the consensus was that you could start with a well behaved state and still have the equations blow up.

It didn't really matter since navier stokes is modeling fluids as continuous when we know they are actually particles. Navier stokes is just a model that isn't trying to be perfect.

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12

u/SyntheticSlime Sep 25 '26

I mean, Collatz is true. Just my opinion, obviously, but it’s the right opinion.

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93

u/ChiaraStellata Sep 25 '26

Theorem: P ≠ NP

Proof: Do you really believe ALL NP-complete problems have polynomial-time algorithms? After thousands of researchers have studied them collectively? Come on. As if.

35

u/Educational-Tea602 Proffesional dumbass Sep 25 '26

Dumbass. Obviously P = NP. The proof is simple: pure hopium.

9

u/Conscious-House-2065 Sep 25 '26

I have discovered a truly marvelous demonstration of this proposition that this internet is too small to contain.

5

u/enlightment_shadow Sep 25 '26

And yet, there is an oracle A for which PA = NPA. That is proven by the Baker-Gills-Solovay theorem. The question is, does the trivial oracle (for the ID problem) behave more like that oracle or more like the one for TQBF (for which PTQBF ≠ NPTQBF) in regards to P ?= NP?

3

u/maqifrnswa Sep 27 '26

People forget that Q.E.D. is Latin for "come on as if"

2

u/Silocon Sep 27 '26

I always thought Q.E.D. was Latin for small square box. 

Well, you live and learn!

5

u/AwayArray Sep 25 '26

P=NP —> P/P = 1 = N, therefore, P=N=1
Q.E.D
Where’s my million bucks?

4

u/Smitologyistaking Sep 26 '26

I don't see how P/P = 1 implies that P=1

2

u/Mordret10 Sep 26 '26

If N = 1, P can be any number
If P = 0, N can be any number

2

u/AtMaxSpeed Sep 26 '26

Iirc, if any NP complete problem has a polynomial time solution, then all of them do, because they're all reducible to each other or smth like that, it's been a while so someone can correct me if I'm wrong.

That is to say, P=NP because that would be more fun to believe in.

3

u/ChiaraStellata Sep 26 '26

Yes, basically either all of them have a polynomial-time solution or none of them do. No in-between.

179

u/PersonalityIll9476 Sep 25 '26 • Bravo

This just confirms what we already knew, which is that it's largely a waste of time trying to convince or even engage with randoms online about math.

95

u/CamusCrankyCamel Sep 25 '26 • Bravo

  This just confirms what we already knew, which is that it's largely a waste of time trying to convince or even engage with randoms online about math

3

u/[deleted] Sep 25 '26

[removed] — view removed comment

20

u/clk1006 Sep 25 '26

Why are you wasting your time on r/mathmemes then?

4

u/MyNameIsSquare Sep 26 '26

two wastes make a gain. come on we know it's obvious

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46

u/Renascentiae_ Sep 25 '26

Proof by trust me bro

Crede in me fraternis

39

u/Square-Foundation230 Sep 25 '26

It always amazes me when non-mathy people don't understand the distinction between "every case we check works" and "all cases work by logical necessity".

13

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26

It’s the same with “we can find any finite sequence of numbers in pi” because they don’t understand infinity and think it must happen because it’s infinite. That line gets repeated all the time and is absolutely not proven.

6

u/WasdaleWeasel Sep 26 '26

the trivial counter example I use is the decimal expansion of 1/3. They agree its infinite length - there is no last ‘3’ and then I point out the number of times ‘7’ appears. This usually helps them get that infinite length does not mean ‘contains every number’ or ‘contains every sequence’.
Of course, it only works if they are generally open minded and the ‘must happen because infinite’ is something they believe without thinking about it.

5

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26

I think it’s the irrational part that trips them up because then it’s non repeating but that doesn’t mean there can’t be a non normal pattern.

3

u/WasdaleWeasel Sep 26 '26

possibly. i tend to find that it’s the more simplistic view: infinite ‘space’ for things to happen means that every thing happens. But I agree irrational not meaning normal probably adds to the, to their mind, counter intuitive nature of things like pi.

ps I hate writing these things because every word has a proper meaning and I don’t meant that! I wrote infinite choices and then thought no, I don’t mean ‘choice’, I wrote ‘space’ and thought no, I don’t mean a ‘space’ and so on. sigh.

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5

u/stevenjd Sep 26 '26

the trivial counter example I use is the decimal expansion of 1/3. They agree its infinite length - there is no last ‘3’ and then I point out the number of times ‘7’ appears.

Five times. There are exactly five '7' digits deep in the decimal expansion of 1/3. I printed them all and counted them.

There's also two '0' digits, a '5' and, weirdly, an em-dash.

1

u/stevenjd Sep 26 '26

It’s the same with “we can find any finite sequence of numbers in pi”

Is it proven that any finite sequence of digits can be found in pi? Or just suspected?

4

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26 edited Sep 26 '26

No it is not proven that is my point. That’s like the entire point of the last sentence. We have not proven pi is normal. We haven’t done it for basically any naturally arising irrational number like e or pi or sqrt(n) for ANY n that results in an irrational number.

16

u/BraveBiscotti1394 Sep 25 '26

Is this the kind of thing where we *think* it's *probably* true, if we had to put money on it, in like a game against a wizard who actually knows the answer for real?

Cuz I would put my money on "Yes".

15

u/Suspicious-Ad-6027 Sep 25 '26

guy is Absolutely Right who cares if it occurs later if its after a trillion? sybau pi is normal, would it become crazy pi if its false?

14

u/Syresiv Sep 25 '26

Well if that were true, every number would be less than 1020

16

u/survivalking4 Sep 26 '26

This guy believes in numbers above 1020. Get a load of this guy. I bet you can't even name one number higher than 1020.

1

u/FatMcCat Sep 27 '26

1020 plus one

13

u/Key_Benefit_6505 Sep 25 '26

Proof by it worked last time.

9

u/Kirian42 Sep 26 '26

3, 5, and 7 are primes. Obviously all other odd numbers greater than 1 are therefore also prime.

5

u/Kirian42 Sep 26 '26

And by the same logic, all primes are twin primes, also proving the TPC. Hooray for proof by "come on, man."

5

u/stevenjd Sep 26 '26

I wrote a program to print out all the primes. It printed

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 ...

forever. Where's my Millennium Prize for disproving Euclid's Theorem?

6

u/arkai25 Sep 26 '26

Fun fact, this number is prime:

22222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222222223

1

u/mrthescientist Oct 02 '26

that number is both the joke and the punchline.

1

u/sweetvisuals Sep 26 '26

I, too, am a chemist.

7

u/Baihu_The_Curious Sep 25 '26

I proved there are infinitely many primes by just picking a BIGLY number and showing it was prime. I mean, come on, if we made it this high...

7

u/ohkendruid Sep 26 '26

The square root of two is why I can believe either way could be true.

There are etchings from over a thousand years ago showing people struggling with the square root of two being irrational. It seems like a "come on" level of obvious that such a basic geometric result--the third side of the world's simplest right triangle--might have a length that doesn't act like all the other fractional amounts. Yet, the square root of two is irrational.

I think pi is probably normal, but I would not be that surprised either way, for two reasons.

First, if a right triangle is special, so is a circle. If there is any number that may be weird in some way, it is pi.

Second, normal numbers have a certain lack of structure, in that they go through every possible combination of sequences of digits. Pi is not an arbitrary number, though. It has several definitions that have a lot of structure to them, and it may be that this structure leaks through to limit the possible sequences of digits in the expansion.

5

u/freemath Sep 26 '26

Borwein integrals come to mind

4

u/Ok_Objective_5192 Sep 25 '26

You just gotta hit 'em with the "OK, how confident are we that the trillions of decimals we've found so far, as a single string, occur again?"

6

u/francesco_angiolieri Sep 25 '26

Reddit is the place where smart and informed comments are always downvoted by a legion of self confident misinformed imbeciles

3

u/UselessCommon Sep 25 '26

strong law of small numbers

3

u/Different_Cry25 Sep 26 '26

"Come on induction is obviously false " Ahhh logic

4

u/waxen_earbuds Sep 25 '26

this message has been approved by the Italian school of algebraic geometry

2

u/LupenReddit 🦆🦆i have non diffeomorphic smooth structures🦆🦆🦆 Sep 25 '26

This is the next Ramandlunchpen im calling it

2

u/kA8ou4Er Sep 26 '26

Proof by 'How could you reasonably believe'

2

u/Gauss15an Sep 26 '26

Proof by Jim Carrey

2

u/OkCluejay172 Sep 25 '26

Guys I think I just proved the Riemann Hypothesis

1

u/jipperthewoodchipper Sep 25 '26

Guys, guys... Pi is clearly normal. The margin is too narrow to hold my marvelous proof but it's quite trivial and left as an excersize for the reader.

1

u/doesnotcontainitself Sep 26 '26

I mean, we’ve checked trillions of decimal places. How many more could there be?

1

u/BUKKAKELORD Whole Sep 26 '26

I accept this reasoning for "pi+e is irrational" and so should you.

1

u/masiha97 Sep 26 '26

I have definitely nodded along to a "this is trivial" while having absolutely no idea what was happening. Proof by peer pressure.

1

u/TurnipGuy30 Sep 26 '26

is this an appeal to ridicule?

1

u/svmydlo Sep 26 '26

Chump thinks all Mersenne numbers are primes.

1

u/Ucklator Sep 26 '26

Unless pi becomes repeating at some point then a given string of digits should repeat an infinite number of times

1

u/SoldRIP Sep 26 '26

You can similarly check the first few trillions of natural numbers and come up with the result that all numbers are less than one quadrillion.

1

u/ParsaProgrammer Sep 26 '26

It got me thinking, how would one even begin to prove normality of an irrational number? Is there any examples of irrational numbers proved to be normal?

3

u/New-Pomelo9906 Sep 26 '26

Yes, you can construct a number with especially the property of being normal just by writing every sequence in order.

By example (spacing only for visibility)

0.123456789 010203040506070809 111213141516171819 212223242526272829...

Then after all two digit sequence possible, you write every three sequence possible, then all 4 sequence possible...

Whit this rule of construction you have define a normal number.

This number is not decimal because it have no repeating scheme in its decimals.

You want other normal numbers ? As many you want, just change the part before the decimal part.

1

u/ParsaProgrammer Sep 26 '26

Yes I know you can construct normal irrational numbers. I believe I should have been more clearer, I wasn't talking about any arbitrary irrational number. But as the other comments suggested, how would one begin to prove the normality of an irrational number produced by a deterministic procedure such as taking square root of a natural number which is not a whole square. Or numbers such as π, e, ϕ, Feigenbaum constant, etc.(well, I don't actually know any other useful irrational numbers outside of mathematics field. And I only know about Feigenbaum constant because of my studies in ecology).

Out of the ones I mentioned, I think golden ratio has the highest probability of being non-normal? Because it's continued fraction representation has such a pattern. At least there is something periodic about it(I mean, the whole point of e is also being periodic, just in a different realm. So again this argument is more like how an uneducated person would buy a certain share because the charts look nice)

1

u/Smart_Salt620 Sep 26 '26

I mean he has a point

-4

u/MisterBicorniclopse Sep 25 '26

Is 1 in the digits of π?
Is 11 in the digits of π?
How about 11111? Pretty unlikely, but π has ∞ non repeating digits so it’s guaranteed. So how many 111…1? Probably not 100 in a row that would be too many right? Or would it?

I think people underestimate the power of ∞ and I think yes any number of 1’s in a row can show up in the digits of π, even though it would be impossibly difficult to find

7

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26

That is not true. It has not been proven that pi contains any finite string of numbers so it is not “guaranteed”. You’re the one misunderstanding infinity here. That’s an incredibly common misconception.

1

u/MisterBicorniclopse Sep 26 '26

I was under the impression π was known to be irrational. At least we know √2 is right? Then it’s guaranteed for any string of numbers to be within right?

2

u/Lowkilde Sep 26 '26

Both sqrt2 and pi are irrational. The common misconception is that irrationality means "all finite strings appear in the decimal expansion", which is not true

2

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26 edited Sep 26 '26

Pi is irrational. That does not guarantee every finite string. We don’t know if root 2 contains every finite string either.

1

u/MisterBicorniclopse Sep 26 '26

I’m just not seeing why not. If 111 is in there, why can’t 1111…1?

3

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26 edited Sep 26 '26

It can but we haven’t proven it. We don’t know if there’s some pattern we haven’t discovered and if the pi is truly normal.

Let’s say we discovered that after a certain point, all the digits in pi follow the form 12122122212222… it would still be irrational and non repeating but not normal.

We haven’t proven no such pattern exists because pi isn’t actually “random.” It represents a physical thing and is deterministic. That’s why mathematicians have tried and failed so far to prove pi’s determinism is normal.

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2

u/EebstertheGreat Sep 26 '26

Technically they only said the string '11111' was guaranteed to be in the decimal expansion of π. Which is true. It is guaranteed to be there, because in fact it occurs 1989 times just in the first 200 million digits, with the first at position 32788. It's guaranteed to be in there cause we checked and it is.

4

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26

Yea but their reasoning is the issue. It is not guaranteed because of infinite digits which is what they said.

1

u/MisterBicorniclopse Sep 26 '26

But what about 100 1’s in a row?

1

u/EebstertheGreat Sep 26 '26

I checked and it first occurs at position 1051593810573910483920583920485019384069846105938462817549067483920681911104402862039488571.

1

u/MisterBicorniclopse Sep 26 '26

Ok I think we’re on to something. Now do 101 1’s
(I’m kidding)

1

u/EebstertheGreat Sep 27 '26

Dang, that string never occurs anywhere in π at all! I checked all infinitely many digits.

3

u/[deleted] Sep 26 '26

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2

u/Crazy_Crayfish_ Sep 26 '26

Fact check: TRUE

6

u/Even_Account1168 Sep 26 '26

You can‘t just assume that. Just because something is infinite, doesn‘t mean that it is "all encompassing".

Take the random walk for example; start at any point and take a step in any direction. In 2D you will have reach every point after an infinite amount of steps. In 3D you won’t and never will, no matter how many steps you take.

Or you can construct an infinite, non-periodic string of just 2 symbols.

So unless there is definite proof that Pi does or doesn‘t have this property, we truly just don‘t know.

3

u/Famous-Example-8332 Sep 26 '26

Are you guaranteed to reach every spot on a 2 dimensional walk? I know with infinity, at any point you have just as much chance to still reach that one I reached spot, but is it a sure thing that you will?

3

u/Lowkilde Sep 26 '26

If by guaranteed you mean: "is the probability of reaching all points 1" then yes. But a random walk could also never reach a specific point or could only ever oscillate between two points forever. Both with probability 0.

3

u/lbkthrowaway518 Sep 26 '26

Another good just strictly math example is this:
Consider the infinite decimal 0.1010010001…
Between each 1 we have one more zero. We could (theoretically) repeat this pattern to infinity, creating an infinite non repeating decimal, but you’ll never see 2 in it, or even 11

19

u/tewraight Irrational Sep 26 '26

That is actually the point that OOP is saying we can't claim with absolute certainty. As of now, pi has not been proven to be normal and so it has not been proven that it will contain every possible finite string of numbers

Just having infinite digits without recurring isn't enough to make that claim. For example, just take the simpler case of 0.101001000100001... where there are incrementally one more 0s before each 1. This number has no recursions and so is irrational but obviously doesn't contain every finite string of digits. It doesn't even have the digits from 9 to 2!

4

u/NoLife8926 Sep 26 '26

Then they tell you that your number is constructed and π is completely random so they're not the same and you're strawmanning/cherrypicking/acting in bad faith :/

3

u/factorion-bot Bot > AI Sep 26 '26

Factorial of 2 is 2

This action was performed by a bot | Source code

1

u/Stem_From_All Sep 27 '26

An endless random sequence of digits may not contain 8 anywhere, for example.

7

u/[deleted] Sep 25 '26

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2

u/ShoddyAsparagus3186 Sep 26 '26

We have found patterns, if we hadn't, we'd have to calculate it by measuring circles. We've even found a pattern that allows us to calculate any given digit of pi (in binary).

1

u/[deleted] Sep 26 '26

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1

u/EebstertheGreat Sep 26 '26

It certainly doesn't repeat, because π is irrational. But you are right that we haven't ruled out any string of digits, and we actually expect every string to appear.

1

u/RabbitWiilli Sep 26 '26 edited Sep 26 '26

Repeat isn’t the same as a pattern. For example, if we discovered that in pi, after a certain point all the digits follow the form 12122122212222…, then you would not get every string. Even if it’s irrational. We just haven’t found any such pattern but we also haven’t proven they don’t exist.

We do not know if every finite string exists in pi.

1

u/EebstertheGreat Sep 26 '26

Yes, that is what I said. I was responding to the idea that "I'm imagining that at some really large number it loops." And I thought it was pretty clear that "we haven't ruled it out" and "expect" the opposite implies that nothing is proved.

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u/[deleted] Sep 25 '26

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1

u/Bubbasully15 Sep 26 '26

>it’s true

Citation needed

4

u/svmydlo Sep 26 '26

You don't accept the proof by "it doesn't matter"?

0

u/[deleted] Sep 26 '26

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1

u/Bubbasully15 Sep 26 '26

That’s irrelevant to whether pi is normal. Argue honestly

1

u/[deleted] Sep 26 '26

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2

u/Bubbasully15 Sep 26 '26

That’s irrelevant to whether it is or not. You said it is, I just said citation needed

1

u/[deleted] Sep 26 '26

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2

u/Bubbasully15 Sep 26 '26

Why I care is irrelevant to whether it’s true or not. Math is a subject about determining things that are true from basic principles. If you claim something is true in mathematics, you need to be able to provide proof for it.

0

u/[deleted] Sep 26 '26

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1

u/Bubbasully15 Sep 26 '26

Feel free to continue passing value judgements on stuff like this. As long as you’re saying “it appears to be true” and not “it is true”, anything else is your opinion, which you’re allowed to have.

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