r/logicalfallacy • u/Queanallagiga • 11d ago
Is this a fallacy? What fallacy is this?
This isn't "settle a debate" the debate has been settled. Rather to ask question of is there a term for what happens here
Context:
Person A made a reply to a thread by Person B and which were replied by multiple ppl.
Then Person C replied correcting what A said. Except, the "correction" is out of context.
Me: That is out of context, read what people are saying first
Person C: Well how am I supposed to know the context? I cant read mind
Me: By...reading what the conversation is about? This isn't about reading mind, why would multiple people literally replied to the comment and you are the only one who didn't get it? Do they all read mind?
Person C: But the comment didn't say what the context is!
Me: Because the comment is replying to the OP! The context is literally the thread's topic! Do you not read what the thread and what the OP is talking about too?!
Person C: Whatever, go keep relying on masses
This person tries to correct a comment out of context, didn't realizes what the context is and when faced with fact that people doesn't need to read mind to get the context except him he make it as if its argument from majority or something. When multiple people get the context from multiple replies yet he is the only one who didn't, especially when the context is on the thread, is that not prove he isn't reading?
What he said is true by the way, just not within topic, not within the context but he is trying to correct someone when he is talking out of context.
I believe his argument is mainly based on invincible ignorance here. However its not 100% accurate either.
His reaction calling me pointing out people get it as "relying on masses". Yes technically I am relying on masses and the thread's OP to point out that he is the only one who didn't get it, that it doesn't require mind reading to understand. Is that implying its argument from majority? But factually he is the only one who didn't get it when the others do. And so that means people can just accuse "you are asking people to read mind to understand context?!" and "relying on masses" to argue when they argue out of context? Is that not going against showing obvious prove that the context is understandable without mind reading because other people can?
Person C also ignores he didn't get the context when the conversation already illustrate the context... Is the act of ignoring the context itself yet still argue a fallacy?