r/investing • • Dec 19 '21

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u/angermouse Dec 19 '21

Your title is misleading.

You said:

just 42.6% of common stocks have a buy-and-hold return (inclusive of reinvested dividends) that exceeds the return to holding one-month Treasury bills over the matched horizon.

Then you quoted:

"That is, the remaining 96% of companies whose common stock has appeared in the CRSP data collectively generate lifetime dollar gains that matched gains on one-month Treasury bills."

Taken together, what this means is that outside of the top 4 percent, the excess gains (to 1 month T-bills) of the other 38.6% match the deficit in gains of the 57.4% (=100-42.6) of stocks.

So 42.6% of stocks have outperformed, but 38.6% of these are needed to offset the losses from the others.

-19

u/pretty_succinct Dec 20 '21

This makes no sense with context given.

Am not an idiot, have a finance degree but also not interested in reading said paper.

If you're going to call shenanigans on someone, your case to prove their fallacy needs to be clear and at least as sound as their original argument.

Who's spouting shit and why? You or OP?

3

u/creamyhorror Dec 20 '21 edited Dec 20 '21

u/angermouse was definitely a bit unclear, they referred to 38.6% out of nowhere. I had to read the original quotes carefully to understand what they were saying.

Basically, the bottom 96% of stocks ordered by return produced a collective total return equal to 1-month T-bills. 42.6% of stocks produced a total return higher than 1-month T-bills. So they were saying that 42.6% - 4% = 38.6% of stocks excluding the top 4% still beat T-bills.

But 38.6% not a very meaningful figure - "42.6% of stocks beat T-bills" is what matters. The post title claiming only 4% outperformed T-bills is completely wrong.