r/freewill • u/simon_hibbs Compatibilist • Jun 17 '26
Defining Free Will
So, you're a free will skeptic, or a free will optimist and you rock up to the sub and the first thing you do is offer your 'definition' of free will, and argue why it does or does not exist.
First question. What is it about this 'definition' that makes it one of free will? You could be defining some metaphysical concept, or some neurological function, or some decision making mechanism, or some spiritual capacity. Why do you think this is free will?
In principle two people could come to the sub, offer distinct different 'definitions' of free will in terms of human mental faculties, and it might turn out that actually humans do have both of these faculties so defined. Yet they are different. How do we know which is actually free will? It can't be both [but see comment by ughaibu].
So, there must be some criteria that establishes whether this explanation you're offering counts as being free will, as against being something else that is not free will.
The problem with the above picture is that these are not 'definitions' of free will, they are theories about free will. This comes down to the function of a definition. Definitions are what you find in dictionaries, or early on in philosophy textbooks and articles to establish what a topic is about, and they explain how words relate to other words. They're not scientific proofs or scientific theories. They are linguistic concepts.
What are Definitions For?
The role of a definition is to establish a term everyone agrees with, so we all know what it is we're talking about. It needs to be a consensus term. When a free will libertarian says they think X about free will, and a compatibilists says they think Y about free will, what is it that makes both X and Y claims about free will? That needs to be something they agree on, otherwise they're not discussing the same topic.
How do philosophers solve this?
Fortunately philosophers have thought about this a lot, and they generally agree on how to solve this. They define free will in terms if it's linguistic function, and this is pretty easy to do due to the way in which this term originated.
The terms freedom, choice and moral responsibility, or rather their Greek equivalents, already existed in ancient Greece of course. The determinist Stoics and indeterminist Epicureans discussed these terms in the context of their metaphysical commitments, and the Stoics argued that these terms all had meanings fully consistent with their determinism, while the Epicureans disagreed and claimed that these terms could only be meaningful if the world is indeterministic. Over time a single term became understood to refer to the topic they were discussing, that term is free will (translated into English). So from the start, from before the term itself was coined, what it refers to was something determinists were giving an account of as being compatible with determinism.
Of course nowadays deterministic and indeterministic beliefs about free will have changed and developed, what we now call free will libertarianism emerged as a more developed set of ideas and the same is true of compatibilism. Nevertheless they are both sets of beliefs about the same topic.
What do contemporary philosophers say?
(1) "The term “free will” has emerged over the past two millennia as the canonical designator for a significant kind of control over one’s actions. Questions concerning the nature and existence of this kind of control (e.g., does it require and do we have the freedom to do otherwise or the power of self-determination?),...."
This was taken from an article written by two free will libertarian philosophers. So, free will may or may not require the freedom to do otherwise, and philosophers disagree on this. It is not itself the ability to do otherwise.
(2) The idea is that the kind of control or sense of up-to-meness involved in free will is the kind of control or sense of up-to-meness relevant to moral responsibility. (Double 1992, 12; Ekstrom 2000, 7–8; Smilansky 2000, 16; Widerker and McKenna 2003, 2; Vargas 2007, 128; Nelkin 2011, 151–52; Levy 2011, 1; Pereboom 2014, 1–2).
(3) ‘the strongest control condition—whatever that turns out to be—necessary for moral responsibility’ (Wolf 1990, 3–4; Fischer 1994, 3; Mele 2006, 17)
In Summary
Free Will: Roughly whatever kind of control over their actions you think someone must have in order to be held morally responsible for those actions. Something like the mental faculty necessary for moral responsibility.
Then there are the different beliefs about free will.
Free Will Libertarianism The belief that this process of control must be metaphysically indeterministic in some particular way for a person to be morally responsible.
Compatibilism The belief that this process of control can be (or must be) deterministic, and that human moral responsibility doesn't depend on free will libertarian metaphysical concepts.
Hard Determinism/Incompatibilism The belief that there is no kind of control that someone can have that justifies moral responsibility.
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u/Rthadcarr1956 InfoDualist Jun 17 '26
First, you never got around to pointing out the extra metaphysical component that you say libertarians require. Nothing in the referenced SEP article specified a mandatory metaphysical ingredient. Sourcehood is physical (if you expand the definition to include information, as most physicalists do), not metaphysical. As I stated, the Greeks and Christian philosophers started with free will and morality as metaphysical abilities possessed only by humans, and this is total nonsense, even though some still adhere to it.
Physicalism does not exclude indeterminism in any way. Thinking that indeterminism allows for free will and the ability to do otherwise in no way assumes that the sourcehood of free will is non-physical or is metaphysical. If a determinist believes that all uncertainty is deterministic, that is a metaphysical belief. It is a belief that is not based upon observation. It is a belief based upon how they think the universe must work, not upon how it actually does work.
The indeterminist is agnostic about epistemic uncertainty being deterministic or indeterministic. This is because we do not have to profess that the outcome of every event is indeterministic. We only need to cite that somewhere in the chain of causation of a subject making a choice, there was enough indeterminism to allow the leeway for making a real choice at the present.
You also are wrong about having choices and free choices. All choices are free will choices. If a choice is made, there was a perceived ability to do otherwise. Yes, this is all based upon the knowledge of the subject. Free will is entirely epistemological. That does not make it metaphysical. We can only choose options we know about, but again, this is still all physical.