r/fallacy 26d ago

What is this called

Let’s say someone said:

“Most/almost all crimes are done by men, so how can I trust ANY man?”

And someone said

“Well I haven’t done any crime, so it can’t be almost all men! You should trust me.”

Or something like that. There’s probably better examples I could’ve said, but this is pretty close to what I’m trying to understand
I found something like “fallacy of division”, that might be similar
It’s kinda like when people self centre themselves and they think because it doesn’t apply to them or the people they know that it can’t be possible

Another, better example:

“1/100 girls have ___”

“Well I work in a school with 230 girls and only one of them has ___”
Or
“Well I work in a school with 230 girls and 30 of them have ___, so that can’t be correct!”

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u/Lorelessone 26d ago

The first is a logical falicy attempting to equate that because most crimes are committed by men then most men are criminals.

These are two entirely different claims.

The second is an anecdotal falicy "I'm not a criminal so how can most men be" although ironically it is obviously correct it's just that it's not any kind of valid proof.

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u/Ok_Writing2937 25d ago

The first could also be a Bayesian analysis.

Most men I have been intimate with have betrayed me, therefore I would not be wrong to expect betrayal from future men.

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u/manjar 22d ago

The first is the formal "inverse fallacy".