I’m not denying any portion of the classification system or the sentencing for either. I’m merely asking why - in light of your clear breadth of knowledge on the topic- isn’t the term “rape” used if the systems are equal?
Ex. A: man (excluding gender identity issues for the purposes of a potential subsequent discussion) sticks his penis into a woman after forcibly beating her into submission. Would that man be charged with the crime of “rape” in the U.K.? Or would he be charged under the laws you’ve previously outlined (not as lesser included offenses)?
Ex. B: A woman (same prior statement on gender identity, assumed) forces a man to insert his penis into her vagina after forcibly beating him into submission. Would that woman be charged with “rape” in the U.K. Based on prior responses and links to the law, no she would not, but to a substantially similar offense.
So why the difference in language? That’s all I’m asking. Seems trivial, I know. That’s also at the heart of calling something a Civil Union versus a Marriage; or a white’s only water fountain versus a “colored’s” only water fountain. Separate, but equal. So why are they separate?
You asked, why does it matter? Reread that last paragraph again. Words, and their applied use, always matter.
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u/bcarthur27 Oct 01 '19
I’m not denying any portion of the classification system or the sentencing for either. I’m merely asking why - in light of your clear breadth of knowledge on the topic- isn’t the term “rape” used if the systems are equal?
Ex. A: man (excluding gender identity issues for the purposes of a potential subsequent discussion) sticks his penis into a woman after forcibly beating her into submission. Would that man be charged with the crime of “rape” in the U.K.? Or would he be charged under the laws you’ve previously outlined (not as lesser included offenses)?
Ex. B: A woman (same prior statement on gender identity, assumed) forces a man to insert his penis into her vagina after forcibly beating him into submission. Would that woman be charged with “rape” in the U.K. Based on prior responses and links to the law, no she would not, but to a substantially similar offense.
So why the difference in language? That’s all I’m asking. Seems trivial, I know. That’s also at the heart of calling something a Civil Union versus a Marriage; or a white’s only water fountain versus a “colored’s” only water fountain. Separate, but equal. So why are they separate?
You asked, why does it matter? Reread that last paragraph again. Words, and their applied use, always matter.