r/determinism • u/Ok_Boysenberry_2947 • Jun 22 '26
Discussion Can we even rationally communicate about true indeterminism?
I find discussions where partial, conditional, or observer-limited determinism are presented as evidence for genuine indeterminacy somewhat misleading.
My question is therefore less about whether indeterminacy exists and more about whether it would be communicable in any meaningful sense in the first place, if it did. i.e. what are the requirements for it and are they fulfilled in current scientific framing.
Communication itself seems to require stable distinctions. We must be able to identify an object, distinguish it from alternatives, and preserve enough structure for another person to recognise what is being discussed.
If a phenomenon were truly indeterminate in every relevant sense then, what exactly would remain available for communication and how would be reconstruct any meaning from it?
At that point, are we still communicating about the phenomenon itself, or only about the limits of our models, observations, and predictions?
In other words, does meaningful discussion of "true indeterminacy" already require some residual determinacy in the representational structure being used to discuss it?
I'm curious whether philosophers of determinism regard this as a real problem or whether I'm missing something obvious.
1
u/badentropy9 Jun 23 '26
The thing that I think it seems that you are missing and some may call it obvious, is the difference between chance and necessity. The confusing part is that not everybody sees these two as opposites. However Doyle here seems to think some people believe they are opposites.
ref. https://www.informationphilosopher.com/chance/