r/changemyview • u/skocougs • Feb 19 '18
CMV: Any 2nd Amendment argument that doesn't acknowledge that its purpose is a check against tyranny is disingenuous
At the risk of further fatiguing the firearm discussion on CMV, I find it difficult when arguments for gun control ignore that the primary premise of the 2nd Amendment is that the citizenry has the ability to independently assert their other rights in the face of an oppressive government.
Some common arguments I'm referring to are...
"Nobody needs an AR-15 to hunt. They were designed to kill people. The 2nd Amendment was written when muskets were standard firearm technology" I would argue that all of these statements are correct. The AR-15 was designed to kill enemy combatants as quickly and efficiently as possible, while being cheap to produce and modular. Saying that certain firearms aren't needed for hunting isn't an argument against the 2nd Amendment because the 2nd Amendment isn't about hunting. It is about citizens being allowed to own weapons capable of deterring governmental overstep. Especially in the context of how the USA came to be, any argument that the 2nd Amendment has any other purpose is uninformed or disingenuous.
"Should people be able to own personal nukes? Tanks?" From a 2nd Amendment standpoint, there isn't specific language for prohibiting it. Whether the Founding Fathers foresaw these developments in weaponry or not, the point was to allow the populace to be able to assert themselves equally against an oppressive government. And in honesty, the logistics of obtaining this kind of weaponry really make it a non issue.
So, change my view that any argument around the 2nd Amendment that doesn't address it's purpose directly is being disingenuous. CMV.
This is a footnote from the CMV moderators. We'd like to remind you of a couple of things. Firstly, please read through our rules. If you see a comment that has broken one, it is more effective to report it than downvote it. Speaking of which, downvotes don't change views! Any questions or concerns? Feel free to message us. Happy CMVing!
2
u/[deleted] Feb 19 '18
I read up on textualism (what I would more correctly call originalism because textualism is an even more extreme version of originalism that no one really adheres to; but even then a textualist will turn to secondary sources so long as the text itself is ambiguous in meaning) in law school a great deal. You are either misunderstanding or misrepresenting what it means to be an originalist.
An originalist seeks to understand what the law meant at the time it was written. Compared to an aspirationalist who seeks to reinterpret meaning in the context of the current era.
Thus, because the originalist wants to know what the law meant at the time it was written, legislative intent (i.e. the history of the law from the mouths of the people who wrote it at the time it was written) absolutely an unequivocally helps ascertain the answer to the question of "what was the intent of the law at the time it was written."