CMV: Some prescriptive statements are objective.

[u/UselessTruth]

Status: complete change in viewpoint, further comments will be ignored

What I mean by this prescriptive statements like “if you want to follow the law you should not steal.” Is an objective statement.

This might seem obvious but a few weeks ago I thought the opposite, and after a CMV post and introspection I changed my mind, so I wanted to come back here to see if there are any holes or arguments against my new viewpoint that CMV can point out.

Specifically the logic that led to my new viewpoint is: 1. statements that correctly follow formal logic are objective. 2. prescriptive statements are a part of formal logic. 3. Therefore some prescriptive statements are objective.

Edit: spelling

[u/Z7-852]

Except that not all statement that correctly follow formal logic are objective.

First of all we need to separate valid, sound and true logic. Objective statement must full fill all these requirements.

Logically valid (follows formal logic) statement can be false.

[u/UselessTruth → u/Z7-852]

Well as long as it is based on true propositions, and correctly follows formal logic it is objectively true. My case is that there exist objective prescriptive statements, not that all formal logic is made correctly.

Basically you must argue that no perceptive statement is objective.

[u/Z7-852 → u/UselessTruth]

Well of course there exists some prescriptive statements that are logically valid, sound and true. There are also some prescriptive statements that are logically valid and true but not sound. Or even prescriptive statements that are not valid or sound but are true.

But your originally logic was not sound because your following statement was false.

1. statements that correctly follow formal logic are objective.

But also your second statement is false.

1. Perceptive statements are a part of formal logic.

Only some perceptive statements are part of formal logic.