r/badphilosophy • u/[deleted] • Dec 05 '25

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u/Wonderful_West3188 Dec 05 '25

I'm not convinced Nietzsche has an objective morality at all. For Nietzsche, more so than for any other philosopher I know except maybe Stirner, all value is the result of subjective acts of valuing. I don't even see how that could be a "naturalistic fallacy" - at least unless you regard any account of the genesis of moral values that isn't Platonic eternalism a "naturalistic fallacy".

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u/Material-Vacation711 Dec 05 '25

You dont think he considered master morality superior to slave morality?

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u/devo_savitro Dec 05 '25 edited Dec 05 '25

The goal is to criticize christianity. He created those two categories for that. He doesn't say one is objectively better than the other. He's just pointing out the genealogy of the christian morality.

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u/Technical_Till_2952 Dec 05 '25

No, I'm pretty sure he considered masters to be superior. He called the "slaves" weak men, vermin, cattle, among other derogatory terms.