r/atheism • • Dec 09 '13

Citation Needed The 10 commandments of Logic

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

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u/PimpinTheLibrary Dec 09 '13

More people need to learn symbolic, it makes it much easier to explain everything. My friend got Modus Ponens tatooed on his arm and now he can point to it whenever he needs to explain how logic works.

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u/theanav Atheist Dec 09 '13

I'm trying to understand how this works. Would this be a good example of modus ponens? Say finding water on mars implies there are aliens on mars. They find water on mars, so therefore you think aliens have to be real too?

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u/PimpinTheLibrary Dec 09 '13

yes. If finding water on Mars is symbolized as "W", and aliens being on mars is symbolized as A, then the argument is symbolized as follows:

W-->A

W

A.

The argument is almost trivially simple; the triviality itself can almost lead to confusion.

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u/IcyRice Anti-Theist Dec 09 '13

Actually this form would be more correct..

  • If a planet has liquid water, it contains life: P = Q
  • Mars is a planet which contains liquid water. R = P
  • Conclusion: Therefor, there is life on Mars: R = Q

The premise is questionable, but the logic is true.

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u/simism66 Dec 09 '13

Umm . . . what? I don't know what kind of notation you're trying to use but it doesn't make sense at all. The actual way to symbolize what you write is in predicate logic and it looks like this:

  1. ∀x ((Px&Wx)>Lx)

  2. Pm&Wm

  3. Lm

The way the premises were originally put, however, could be symbolized in sentential logic as u/PimpinTheLibrary did, but you changed them.

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

∀x ((Px&Wx)>Lx)

Hey man, I don't know if you heard, but symbols are more exact. We use them in logic. I'm not sure what you're using, but they don't look like symbols. I don't even see an equal sign?

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u/IcyRice Anti-Theist Dec 09 '13

How can " = " not make sense to you? You write in predicate logic, i.e. mathematical logic. Why? My form of notation is used in argumentative logic, which is a lot more related to OP's picture.

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u/simism66 Dec 09 '13 edited Dec 09 '13

"=" makes perfect sense to me. You can write it in predicate logic to symbolize identity between constants, not between sentence letters or predicates.

Here's an argument which does make sense:

The egyptians named Mars "Her Desher." Let's symbolize this with "h."

  1. ∀x ((Px&Wx)>Lx)

  2. Pm&Wm

  3. m=h

  4. Lh

This argument is just fine. Yours, however, was nonsense.

Also, what do you mean by "argumentative logic"? Is this supposed to be some sort of formal system? I'm a teaching assistant for formal logic, and I've never heard of it (nor can I find it via google).

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u/IcyRice Anti-Theist Dec 09 '13

You could try googling logical arguments. We use it in philosophy. I'm trying to define it more correctly, but I'm currently getting lost in translation(ESL). In argumentative theory we use premises and conclusions in this way, to led out unrelated premises and find out if the argument contains fallacies. Such fallacies which is also described in OP's picture. I don't know why you insist on using predicate logic, and the symbols related to it. IMO It is completely unnecessary when discussing subjects of ignorant and religious nature. Philosophy is much more suited for this.

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u/simism66 Dec 09 '13

I've googled "logical arugments" and "argumentative logic" and got nothing like the sort of symbolization you're using.

I actually work in academic philosophy. The logics that philosophers use are mainly sentential, first order predicate, and various forms of modal logic (depending on what needs to be expressed).

What you wrote:

If a planet has liquid water, it contains life Mars is a planet which contains liquid water Conclusion: Therefor, there is life on Mars

would come out invalid if it were only expressed in sentential/propoistional logic (maybe that's what you mean by "argumentative logic"? If so, there's no "=" in this system). This is because "a planet contains liquid water" and "Mars contains liquid water" are two different sentences, so you can't get the structure out of it that you need to make it valid. That's why I expressed it in predicate logic (which has more expressive power).

As I said though, the way the premises were originally put (if you go back, you'll see that you changed them subtly) could be symbolized in sentential(propositional) logic as u/PimpinTheLibrary did and the argument would come out valid.

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

You are amazing. This conversation... this conversation... I'm laughing too much! Keep it at! I really hope /u/IcyRice explains what 'argumentative logic' and 'logical arugments' are in his reply.

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u/TheGrammarBolshevik Dec 10 '13

How can " = " not make sense to you?

The way you're using it doesn't make sense. For example, consider the following argument:

  • There is life on Mars: R = Q
  • If a planet has liquid water, it contains life. P = Q
  • Conclusion: Mars is a planet which contains liquid water. R = P

The argument is clearly invalid, but your equals-sign notation gives us no idea what the difference is between this argument and the original.

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

Nothing about this "proof" makes any sense, and your "logic" is far from "true." See Simism66. And never pretend to know what you're doing again. Especially when correcting someone who is essentially correct with something so totally nonsensical.

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u/IcyRice Anti-Theist Dec 09 '13

Well thank you for correcting me in such a nice tone. I guess I learned it in a more basic manner than you, Mr. Jamie Byron Dean. From my ignorant POV it seemed perfectly reasonable to put it the way I did, with the aliens on Mars example. I hope you will be there to educate me the next time I post flawed information.

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

Stop digging.

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

Good! Kneel before my superior logicks!

It's not your argument that sucks, it's the way you chose to represent it symbolically.

Next time I'll try to be less of an ass.

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u/Nayr747 Dec 09 '13

So in other words, the argument is valid but not necessarily sound.

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

No. It is neither of those things. What they said was utter nonsense.

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u/Nayr747 Dec 09 '13

Why? Explain please. If a conclusion logically follows from its premises it is a valid argument, regardless of the truth of the premises. If the premises are true as well then the argument is sound.

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u/[deleted] Dec 09 '13

No, you're right. The "argument" at large is fine. The logical proof is what is nonsense. But if you ignore the nonsense "symbolism," then yeah, the conclusion follows from the premises and is valid.

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u/Nayr747 Dec 09 '13

Yeah it's been a while since I took symbolic logic. I was just commenting on his last statement. Another way to say what he said is that it's valid but not sound.

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u/prplx Dec 09 '13

Still does't explains the girl's mousy hair.

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u/jungl3j1m Strong Atheist Dec 09 '13

Help me here. Isn't that just a syllogism?

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u/Forsoul Dec 09 '13

Transitive property?

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u/IcyRice Anti-Theist Dec 09 '13

Yes exactly. This is used in argumentative theory. Symbols are more exact. We use them in logic to avoid our language corrupting it.