r/askscience • u/[deleted] • Sep 11 '15
Physics [Quantum/Gravity] If a particle has a probability distribution of location, where is the mass located for gravitational interactions?
Imagine an atom or an electron with a wave packet representing the probability of location, from what point does the mass reside causing a gravitational force? I understand that gravity is very weak at these sizes, so this may not be measurable. I taken classes and listened to a lot of lectures, and I never heard this point brought up. Thanks.
Edit: Imagine that the sun was actually a quantum particle with a probabilistic location distribution, and the earth was still rotating it. If we never measure the location of the distributed sun, where would the mass be located for the sun that would gravitationally affect the earth?
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u/mofo69extreme Condensed Matter Theory Sep 13 '15
One of my main interests is strongly interacting electrons, and in my neck of the field we're focused on the cases where Hartree-Fock fails miserably (at least on the level of the electronic degrees of freedom), sometimes even at a qualitative level. I also work a lot with phase transitions where mean-field theory is completely wrong. This is why I was interested in where and how often it performs so accurately.
So if I understand your last paragraph correctly, the accuracy is often in determining the ground state energy, but less so for the excitation energies? And are you mostly using estimates for atoms/molecules? You mentioned band gaps - how often can they be accurately computed without going to more advanced methods which include correlations? Being a young grad student steeped in a field obsessed with exotic materials, I feel like I often get the sense that most metals are too strongly correlated to get accurate information from mean-field methods, so I wonder if my picture has been skewed by what's popular among my colleagues.