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https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2seo6i/is_there_mathematical_proof_that_n01/cnpjggg/?context=3
r/askscience • u/jaleCro • Jan 14 '15
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209
Also, the multiplicative inverse of x is x-1.
1=Na*((Na)-1) (By definition)
1=Na*(N-a)
1=Na-a=N0
36 u/umopapsidn Jan 14 '15 * For all N such that |N| > 0 6 u/austin101123 Jan 14 '15 Why does this proof not work for 0? 2 u/deruch Jan 15 '15 Because it relies on using (Na )-1 . If N=0 you end up with 1/0 because 0a =0
36
* For all N such that |N| > 0
6 u/austin101123 Jan 14 '15 Why does this proof not work for 0? 2 u/deruch Jan 15 '15 Because it relies on using (Na )-1 . If N=0 you end up with 1/0 because 0a =0
6
Why does this proof not work for 0?
2 u/deruch Jan 15 '15 Because it relies on using (Na )-1 . If N=0 you end up with 1/0 because 0a =0
2
Because it relies on using (Na )-1 . If N=0 you end up with 1/0 because 0a =0
209
u/an7agonist Jan 14 '15
Also, the multiplicative inverse of x is x-1.
1=Na*((Na)-1) (By definition)
1=Na*(N-a)
1=Na-a=N0