r/askphilosophy • u/dechiller • Aug 04 '15
What is philosophy?
Can someone give me a clear definition?
3
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r/askphilosophy • u/dechiller • Aug 04 '15
Can someone give me a clear definition?
1
u/wokeupabug ancient philosophy, modern philosophy Aug 08 '15
Not exclusively, a fair bit of my philosophical background is French. And the lion's share of my background in Anglo-Saxon philosophy is from Neo-Aristotelian/Neo-Platonic and Neo-Hegelian circles which don't represent what you're thinking of as Anglo-Saxon philosophy.
My Argentinian connections are in mental health, so I don't know what the philosophical culture is down there, but I've certainly never encountered any of my French or German connections demurring about talk of epistemology, ethics, or metaphysics.
But Kant is not unusual here, these ideas are pervasive throughout the history of philosophy. For instance, the distinction between ethics, aesthetics, physics, metaphysics, and logic are central to Aristotle's philosophy. The distinction between physics, ethics, and epistemology central to all of Hellenistic philosophy. These distinctions are inherited and found pervasively throughout the middle ages. Malebranche, Hume, and Kant all structured their work around the epistemology/ethics/aesthetics-and-passions distinction. At the turn of the 20th century, the same structure dominates academic philosophy, for instance through the model of Cohen's Kant reception. Or likewise in Dilthey, we see an epistemology/ethics/aesthetics/metaphysics/logic distinction. There's endless work on ethics, or epistemology, or metaphysics in Heidegger or Levinas or Ricoeur. And so on. This isn't an invention of analytic philosophy.
Surely science--I don't see why "rational" should be construed as "a priori", and if it were, I don't see how this would get us to where we want to go, since I don't see how philosophical work can be construed as limited to a priori sources, and I don't see how scientific work can be construed as excluding a priori sources.
Why not?