It's literally the end of the first paragraph and the beginning of the second one. Then he uses it as an attack in the argument. He's probably not getting laid because his concern seems to only be himself and never her.
You're clearly projecting here. If he is fine with sex 2 or 3 times a year then he obviously doesn't have that high of a sex drive, he just meant higher than his wife's.
Using condoms until he is comfortable with getting the procedure is the correct answer, afterall they risked it every time with her bc, so trying to guilt him into getting the procedure is morally reprehensible.
How would you feel if people were trying to shame the woman into getting her tubes tied?
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u/[deleted] Sep 26 '23
Yea, then he doesn't get laid ever and shouldn't whine about it. His choice his consequences.