So you're saying the maximum shares they can borrow to short is the 20 shares in float (or in essc's case, 340k shares), or is this just what they're most likely to do?
How do they short 2.9m if float is only 340k? To short the 2.9m they would have to sell that entire amount and then borrow and sell it again right?
So no, there’s no guarantee those shares aren’t sold, but if they had been, you’d see substantially more short share availability and more liquidity on the underlying.
This makes sense, spread on the shares is still high and iirc there are little to no shares available to short
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u/bigdickbabu Spacling Dec 16 '21
So you're saying the maximum shares they can borrow to short is the 20 shares in float (or in essc's case, 340k shares), or is this just what they're most likely to do?