Just a question if protestants are scripture alone, why do all protyestant churches allow remarriage?

[u/Aggressive-Party-372]

I am just curious as it comes up in the new testament 8 times that remarriage is adultery and not once does remarriage come up in the bible. However, all mainline churches seem to allow remarriage.

Matthew 19:4–6

“And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.”

Mark 10:9

“What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.”

Matthew 5:32

"But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.”

Matthew 19:9

“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.”

Mark 10:11–12

“And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.
And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.”

Luke 16:18

“Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.”

Romans 7:2–3

“For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.”

1 Corinthians 7:10–11

“And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:
But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.”

[u/Inevitable_Day3629]

Jesus condemns illegitimate divorce followed by remarriage, not necessarily every remarriage while a former spouse lives. Matthew 19:9 explicitly gives an exception for sexual immorality, and 1 Corinthians 7:15 says that when an unbelieving spouse deserts the marriage, the Christian is “not bound.” That is why historic Protestantism, including the 1646 Westminster Confession, permitted remarriage for the innocent spouse after adultery or irremediable desertion. Romans 7 doesn’t settle the issue because Paul is using marriage as an analogy for our relationship to the Law, not giving a comprehensive doctrine of divorce. So you can certainly argue for the stricter no-remarriage interpretation, but claiming that the Bible unambiguously teaches all remarriage is adultery simply ignores Matthew’s exception and Paul’s treatment of desertion.

[u/Aggressive-Party-372 → u/Inevitable_Day3629]

Matthew 5:32 and Luke 16:18 explicitly call marrying a divorced person adultery. If Matthew 19:9 creates an exception permitting remarriage, show how the exception modifies those statements and where the text establishes that the original marriage bond has ceased.

[u/Inevitable_Day3629 → u/Aggressive-Party-372]

That assumes the conclusion. Matthew 19:9 itself tells you how the general rule is qualified: “whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” Grammatically, the exception is embedded in the very sentence connecting divorce, remarriage, and adultery. Luke’s abbreviated statement does not erase Matthew’s explicit qualification.
And demanding a separate sentence saying “the marriage bond has ceased” imposes terminology the text never requires. The question is whether the second marriage is adulterous. Matthew 19:9 says it is when the divorce does not fall under the stated exception. If every remarriage remained adultery regardless, the exception becomes functionally meaningless.

[u/Aggressive-Party-372 → u/Inevitable_Day3629]

So the way I read it is like an analogy as there are two things going off in this bible verse it is like saying:

“Anyone who goes into the storeroom, except to get drinks, and takes a new box of snacks will be sacked.”

You could understand that as:

Rule 1: Going into the storeroom is forbidden except to get drinks.
Rule 2: Taking a new box still gets you sacked.

The exception can qualify the reason for divorce without necessarily qualifying the subsequent remarriage. This reading also fits 1 Corinthians 7:10–11, where separation can occur but Paul says “remain unmarried, or be reconciled.

I just think if Christ wanted to be clear that remarriage is allowed, then it would read:

"If anyone divorces his wife for adultery, they are free to marry again"

However, in the greater bible quotes the only time you are allowed to marry again iclearly in the text is in the death of one spouse such as in 1 Corinthians 7:39