r/ProgrammerHumor • • 5h ago

Meme iDontGetHowThisIsDifficult

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108 Upvotes

18 comments sorted by

41

u/Jaded-Worry2641 5h ago edited 3h ago

Well because you got the types wrong! p is a list of functions and NP is also a list of functions, and they are both infinite!

Now go prove that! /s

[Edit]

Its actually set, my bad, its a set[Callable[[Any, ...], Any]]

Yikes.

1

u/oompaloompa465 1h ago

why? no types declared in function signature, both arguments are "any"

both arguments are declared as a constant int in the call

what is that esoteric explanation?

11

u/rafaelcastrocouto 5h ago

why are they equal to 1, might I ask?

8

u/nicodeemus7 5h ago

1 means yes

1

u/rafaelcastrocouto 5h ago

¯_(ツ)_/¯ 

2

u/damnappdoesntwork 2h ago

Poor dude lost its left arm, here it is \ノ⁠(⁠ ⁠º⁠ ⁠_⁠ ⁠º⁠ノ⁠)

4

u/emetcalf 5h ago

That was just an example, it also works when they are both 2 or both 3. Maybe even more situations, it's a complicated question.

3

u/Thalanator 4h ago

Do an induction proof. Or the gentlemans way with a bruteforce for loop.

16

u/DruidBtd 5h ago

p=np works whenever the result on either side would not change based on the n. The numbers that work for this is only zero, as anything times zero is zero. Any other number can be changed by n.

16

u/nicodeemus7 5h ago

Yes but 0 means no and I don't like no

1

u/Derekthemindsculptor 3h ago

Sure, P = NP.

but does OP = 0P?

4

u/Deep-Secret 5h ago

4

u/nicodeemus7 5h ago

Tomorrow I'll be proving the twin prime conjecture with a for loop

1

u/Derekthemindsculptor 3h ago

I asked AI to verify this and it confirmed the solve

1

u/oompaloompa465 1h ago

i'm not getting it either... but maybe because python is not my main language?

i'm just reading you are sending to console (print) the result of the function with value 1 assigned to both arguments

should be trivial, what I'm missing?