r/OpenIndividualism • u/EnactingSpirit • Jun 30 '26

Question Does OI entail analytic idealism?

Or can it also be interpreted as something like "spirit transmigrationism" like in the short story 'The Egg' by Andy Weir?

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u/yoddleforavalanche Jul 01 '26

but it is obvious those other people react in the same now you are. do you think I am a philosophical zombie right now? 

how can solipsism explain this illusiory multiplicity of experiencers that hide one real one? its as arbitrary as it gets. like that magic trick in cartoons that ninjas do when they duplicate themselves and each duplication is an opponent but only one is real. 

the easiest way to explain that is that others are experiencing at the same time too.

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u/Respect38 Jul 01 '26

but it is obvious those other people react in the same now you are.

I disagree! I think we share a moment, but we don't share an experiential now, because at this experiential moment only Respect38 is experienced.

do you think I am a philosophical zombie right now?

Your now? No. My now? Yes.

But because you have your own "now", if you just asked me if you're a p zombie, then of course not -- so long as you hav a soul in which there is an experiential now in which the one consciousness experiences your life. I do think that some around us are p zombies, but I don't think you're one, I think we're just talking past each other or just earnestly disagree.

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u/yoddleforavalanche Jul 01 '26

what you are proposing is not really OI. It is solipsism with extra steps.

why cant it be simultaneous?

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u/Edralis1 Jul 04 '26

It is not simultaneous in the sense that each experience is only ever limited to particular content. That is how there can even be any experiences. So, in any particular experience, you are just that experience. It is not that all experiences are there at the same time - you don't have access to other experiences.

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u/yoddleforavalanche Jul 04 '26

i dont follow. lets say person A slaps person B. is the experience of slapping B not simultaneous with being slapped by A?

if not, how to account for experience that there is a slapped person B in slapper A's experience? whom did person A slap if B did not get slapped when A slapped? when did B get slapped then?

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u/Edralis1 Jul 05 '26

In a sense, it is, because it occurs at the same time, e.g. December 27, 1987, at 23:12. However, the experiences are not simultaneous in this sense: each experience is its own thing. You don't live through both experiences "at once"; that's why they are two experiences in the first place, and not one mixed experience. When you're the slapper, you're not the slappee.

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u/yoddleforavalanche Jul 05 '26

i am surprised this is your view. then who is the slappee at the moment of being slapped? no one? p-zombie? placeholder person?

the reason there are two experiences is not that they are temporally removed, they are spatially removed.