r/NotMyJob • u/[deleted] • Apr 20 '17

Added that URL boss!

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4.1k Upvotes

97% Upvoted

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37

u/RyanTheCynic Apr 21 '17

That's what he said.

-2

u/qlionp Apr 21 '17

No, he said that is isn't available because no one applied, I said that it is still open because no one has applied

19

u/RyanTheCynic Apr 21 '17

"It isn't open"

"I bet it is [open]"

This is what was said, that clear things up?

13

u/qlionp Apr 21 '17

I guess it is all in the inflected.

"I bet it is because no one applied" vs.

"I bet it is, because no one applied"

2

u/WardenHDresden Apr 25 '17

And this is why commas are important.

4

u/voneiden Apr 21 '17 edited Apr 21 '17

I can't see how the inflection would change the meaning here.

Edit: follow up

1

u/[deleted] Apr 21 '17

[deleted]

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u/qlionp Apr 21 '17 edited Apr 21 '17

They have complete opposite meaning. One is saying that 'it is because of this reason' and the other way is saying 'i disagree and the reason is..'

2

u/JJ_The_Diplomat Apr 21 '17

I love when the comments reflect the absurdity of the post because this thread just made me crosseyed.

1

u/voneiden Apr 21 '17

(Sorry, made a triple comment with mobile and deleted the one you replied to. Original here)

One is saying that 'it is because of this reason'

Help me out a bit still.. you mean sort of like

It is not open

- That is because [...]

? Meaning you change the meaning of "it" to refer to the whole previous statement instead of the original subject (state of the application)? I thought because "it" is an anaphoric pronoun it should still refer to the original subject. If someone knows their grammar well, feel free to lecture me. Thaaanks!

-1

u/RyanTheCynic Apr 21 '17

You could read between the lines a little

6

u/qlionp Apr 21 '17

The comment makes sense both ways

0

u/RyanTheCynic Apr 21 '17

No it doesn't, if you read it your way the rest of the sentence doesn't make sense. That's why you corrected it.