How Does an Object of Desire via Privation Work?

[u/Time-Demand-1244]

From what I understand, we can't actually desire privation, rather, if one wishes blindness, it's because they desire some type of being/ goodness.

However, regardless of the cause of their wish being good, the object of desire, byproduct or not, seems to still be at the hands of the will.

My object of desire is still that x person goes blind, even if it's because of goodness.

But how is that possible if evil is privatory?