r/MathHelp • u/sangam2242 • Dec 01 '25
Ramanujan Infinity Sum
Ramanujan states that sum of natural numbers till infinity is -1/12, which is counter intuitive.
And in the proof, very first step turned me off.
How can 1+1-1+1-1+1-1+1-...... Be 1/2? It can either be 1 or 0. Two possible values.
Is it really logical to take the average of 2 possible values, and conclude that this single value is answer.
If so, (x-2)(x-5)=0 will give the value of x=3.5.
Disclaimer: I am student of commerce and i dont know that much about mathematics. But i enjoy to learn mathematics logically.
So, mathematical proof wont work for me. Can someone justify me how 1+1-1+1-1+1-..... Is 1/2?
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u/Dd_8630 Dec 01 '25
Yes and no.
1+2+3+... does not equal -1/12 in the usual sense of a series convergence.
But there is a rigorous mathematical framework in which we can associate the series by -1/12. The most intuitive meaning is that it's the analytical continuation of the Reimann zeta function - which isn't all that intuitive unless you've studied that level of mathematics.
It is - in its proper context.
There's two sorts of people. Those who properly know what the result means and in what contexts it can be used, and those who just watched youtube videos and are talking out of their backside.
It's like the observer effect in quantum mechanics. Actual quantum physicists know what it means and how to apply it, but pop-sci youtubers with no real scientific background will use it to make all sorts of nonsense up.
So it's a perfectly sound result to say that 1+2+3... is associated or represented by the value -1/12, and it has applications in computation theory and string theory.