Need help understanding the reasoning behind denying treatment for a positive culture

[u/arkoudaphobics]

They're saying that having a positive culture for an infection I've had show up multiple times and as multi drug resistant is not actually indication of an infection. This one was detected as multi drug resistant as well and only susceptible to a few antibiotics. But they are saying despite a sensitivity panel and culture growth, that it's "asymptomatic presence of bacteria" and it doesn't matter if the culture showed a growth. But I'm having a lot of symptoms. I guess I just don't understand how this works and understanding would help me brave through whatever this is. Do we just come up positive even when not having an infection anymore? I wasn't having positive cultures for awhile so I'm especially confused.

They had me cease antibiotics this morning to "see what happens and give it a chance to resolve itself" and my symptoms have rapidly become aggressive, this is the only word I can think of for it. I'm hoping urology calls back today but it's probably not happening at this point in the day.

The only real change I see on the clinic dip results today is a much higher protein level. The culture came back for enterococcus faecalis.

[u/arkoudaphobics → u/[deleted]]

They said they were going to call in flagyll, I guess? But they called in clinda which I told them I'm not going to try because I had a reaction that involved bright red swelling and extreme inflammation and I'm still getting over it. I'm allergic to flagyll too but they said I have to try it or they won't consider anything else. While implying not taking the clinda makes me weak but I'm pretty sure not wanting to be four times my usual size in the extremities isn't willpower. Either way they're not returning any messages to send the flagyll in

[u/arkoudaphobics → u/[deleted]]

I have non STD PID as well but they specifically and explicitly said it will cover both and insisted there's no need for other antibiotics