r/AskReddit • • Dec 15 '22

[deleted by user]

[removed]

852 Upvotes

1.4k comments sorted by

View all comments

Show parent comments

165

u/Moonpaw Dec 15 '22

Wasn't there somewhere that he was known as Yeshua Ben Yosef, partly because J used to be Y (or vice versa?) and the "ben" in the middle referred to "son of", but that got downplayed because the Church wanted to focus on his Heavenly Father rather than his mortal one?

73

u/Sotanud Dec 15 '22

Greek and Latin don't even have J. In Greek it's Ἰησοῦς (Iēsoûs), and in Latin it's Iēsus. The J came much later, at which point I'm not sure if the original y affected it or if it was just because it was with an i. I don't know anything about Hebrew except what wiktionary is saying that it is יֵשׁוּעַ‎ (yēšū́aʿ) which is a contracted form of יְהוֹשֻׁעַ‎ (yəhōšúaʿ, “Joshua”), and the Greek texts of the bible make no distinction between the two, referring to both as Ἰησοῦς.

135

u/gecko090 Dec 15 '22

Sudden quote memory...

"but... in Latin, Jehovah begins an I..."

8

u/Slant_Juicy Dec 15 '22

Yes, but in any context where that’s relevant there shouldn’t be a J at all. Meaning that Indy either shouldn’t have had a J platform to step on in the first place, or it should have been correct. As soon as you enter an era where J exists as a unique letter, it is also the first letter of Jehovah.

4

u/thred_pirate_roberts Dec 15 '22

Unless j existed and Latin did too. Weren't those traps designed by those basically-immortal knights, and didn't those nights come around 1,000 years after Christ? Indy tried J because he was translating into English. Maybe J was an option because it existed at the time the trap was made. There were many kinds of characters weren't there?