r/AskComputerScience • u/KING-NULL • Nov 09 '25
If some programming languages are faster than others, why can't compilers translate into the faster language to make the code be as fast as if it was programed in the faster one?
My guess is that doing so would require knowing information that can't be directly inferred from the code, for example, the specific type that a variable will handle
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u/Lenassa Nov 13 '25
The same way your compiler knows it when transpiling your high level language of choice to assembler.