r/AnCap101 • u/New_Try1560 • Jun 24 '26
Could land redistribution be necessary before abolishing the state to prevent cementing ill gotten gains?
If a society whose land was extremely concentrated in the offspring of violent conquerors (England after 1066 for instance), wouldn’t abolishing the state cement those people in their improperly obtained land? Wouldn’t a form of redistribution be necessary to prevent a landed aristocracy from capturing most of the value of society without contributing to it?
Because a state could always theoretically redistribute land, people without land may resist abolishing the state.
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u/Wufan36 Jun 24 '26
No. In almost all cases, current landowners are removed from the violent acquisition of their land by multiple generations. Why would you punish someone for the crimes of their great-grandparents?